KARISHMA315 wrote:
egmat wrote:
Hi Alexander,
Here goes the answer to your question:
Combining enormous physical strength with higher intelligence, the Neanderthals
appear as equipped for facing any obstacle the environment could put in their path, but their relatively sudden disappearance during the Paleolithic era indicates that an inability to adapt to some environmental change led to their extinction.
Neanderthals existed in the past. They do not exist anymore. But the way this sentence has been written, it suggests that they still exist. They “appear” as equipped…. This is the flaw in this sentence.
We need a verb that suggests that Neanderthals are extinct. Now let’s see the sentence with the
correct answer choice:
Combining enormous physical strength with higher intelligence, the Neanderthals
appear to have been equipped to face any obstacle the environment could put in their path, but their relatively sudden disappearance during the Paleolithic era indicates that an inability to adapt to some environmental change led to their extinction.
This choice corrects the verb tense error in the original sentence. Verb phrase “appear to have been equipped” correctly suggests that Neanderthals when alive were equipped to face any environmental problem. They were equipped at that time.
If choice B were worded as “appear to be equipped to face…”, it would be
incorrect because again it would convey the same meaning as Choice A.
Hope this helps.
Thanks.
Shraddha
Hi Can someone pls help me with my below doubt -
I understand in this question as "have been equipped" comes after 'to' so it is not a verb .
But I also read in another @
e-gmat article that even if hypothetically 'have been equipped' was a verb it would be present perfect tense and not present perfect continuous tense. Can someone explain to me why please.
Is it because for present perfect continuous we need have been <Verb in ing form> and as that is not the case so this is present perfect .
If above is true , can you explain how 'been' is correctly used in the above present perfect
Hello
KARISHMA315,
We hope this finds you well.
Having gone through the question and your query, we believe we can resolve your doubt.
Here, the use of the present perfect continuous tense would be incorrect because this tense is used to refer to actions that began in the past and continue into the present, and since Neanderthals are extinct, naturally, we cannot say that they continue to be equipped to face any obstacle.
Further, the use of "have been" is correct, as a present perfect tense verb has been utilized in the passive voice. "have been" is used in both present perfect continuous verb phrases and in the passive version of present perfect verb phrases.
For example: "Rose has fixed the pipes." versus "The pipes have been fixed by Rose."
The key to distinguishing between the two usages is that the present perfect continuous tense always features the present participle ("verb+ing"), and the present perfect tense, whether passive or active, features a past particle.
For example: "Rose has fixed the pipes." (present perfect) versus "Rose has been fixing the pipes." (present perfect continuous).
We hope this helps.
All the best!
Experts' Global Team