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# Compared to us, people who lived a century ago had very few

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Intern
Joined: 16 Apr 2004
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Location: New Jersey
Compared to us, people who lived a century ago had very few [#permalink]

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24 May 2005, 06:48
00:00

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(N/A)

Question Stats:

100% (00:33) correct 0% (00:00) wrong based on 2 sessions

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Compared to us, people who lived a century ago had very few diversions to amuse them. Therefore they likely read much more than we do today.

Q. Which of the following statements, if true, most weakens the argument?

a.Many of the books published a century ago were of low literary quality.
b.On average, people who lived a century ago had considerably less leisure time than we do today.
c.The number of books sold today is larger than it was a century ago.
d.On the average, books today cost slightly less is relation to other goods than they did a century ago.
e.One of the popular diversions of a century ago was horse racing.

Question:- I marked E but I later realized that "popular" is a relative term hence doesn't weaken the argument.

The official answer to the question is B.

My approach was:-

Lack of diversion (Causes) more reading

Therefore to weaken there is something else which can account for "more reading". I am unable to understand " how having less time can account for more reading"

Can anyone please explain this to me?

Thanks,
Mohit

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SVP
Joined: 05 Apr 2005
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Re: CR Question from LSAT Paper Test 37 Section 2 [#permalink]

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24 May 2005, 22:04
B is the answer. if they didnot have enough time, how they read more in those days than we do today.

E si not corrct. the argument says that they had very few diversion and one of them could be horse ridding.

Question:- I marked E but I later realized that "popular" is a relative term hence doesn't weaken the argument.
The official answer to the question is B.
My approach was:- Lack of diversion (Causes) more reading
Therefore to weaken there is something else which can account for "more reading". I am unable to understand " how having less time can account for more reading" Can anyone please explain this to me? Thanks, Mohit

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Manager
Joined: 27 Jan 2005
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Location: San Jose,USA- India

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24 May 2005, 23:17
Please wait a while before posting answer.

Thanks.

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Director
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26 May 2005, 11:00
B...

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Senior Manager
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26 May 2005, 11:08
B.

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Senior Manager
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26 May 2005, 11:12
Folaa3 wrote:
B...

I too vote for B.

Mohit,
thought you have got to the right one, please read this to see why ur approach is not flawless.

The stem doesn't indicate that lact of diversion caused more reading, rather it suggest "lack of diversion with quite some leisure caused more reading ( coz, less diversion with less leisure wouldn't have to cause them to seek more leisure , aka, reading) - here the had quite some leisure is an assumption.
So if we break the back of the assumption it would weaken the arguement.

HMTG.

HMTG.

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26 May 2005, 11:12
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# Compared to us, people who lived a century ago had very few

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