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# Devil's Dozen!!!

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Intern
Joined: 06 Sep 2018
Posts: 37
GMAT 1: 760 Q50 V44
GMAT 2: 740 Q48 V44

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27 Oct 2018, 13:08
Hi Bunuel! I am a bit confused for the case n=1.

If n=1 then statement one equates to 5 and statement 2 equates to 6. Hence the possible values of P are 5,2,3. none of which is a factor of 1?

If each statement is true, then P should then be a prime factor of 5 and either 2 or 3, but that's impossible?

Will be grateful if you could clarify. Thank you.

Bunuel wrote:
2. If n is a positive integer and p is a prime number, is p a factor of n!?

(1) p is a factor of (n+2)!-n! --> if $$n=2$$ then $$(n+2)!-n!=22$$ and for $$p=2$$ then answer will be YES but for $$p=11$$ the answer will be NO. Not sufficient.

(2) p is a factor of (n+2)!/n! --> $$\frac{(n+2)!}{n!}=(n+1)(n+2)$$ --> if $$n=2$$ then $$(n+1)(n+2)=12$$ and for $$p=2$$ then answer will be YES but for $$p=3$$ the answer will be NO. Not sufficient.

(1)+(2) $$(n+2)!-n!=n!((n+1)(n+2)-1)$$. Now, $$(n+1)(n+2)-1$$ and $$(n+1)(n+2)$$ are consecutive integers. Two consecutive integers are co-prime, which means that they don't share ANY common factor but 1. For example 20 and 21 are consecutive integers, thus only common factor they share is 1. So, as from (2) $$p$$ is a factor of $$(n+1)(n+2)$$ then it can not be a factor of $$(n+1)(n+2)-1$$, thus in order $$p$$ to be a factor of $$n!*((n+1)(n+2)-1)$$, from (1), then it should be a factor of the first multiple of this expression: $$n!$$. Sufficient.

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Joined: 02 Sep 2009
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28 Oct 2018, 00:31
1
gmat800live wrote:
Hi Bunuel! I am a bit confused for the case n=1.

If n=1 then statement one equates to 5 and statement 2 equates to 6. Hence the possible values of P are 5,2,3. none of which is a factor of 1?

If each statement is true, then P should then be a prime factor of 5 and either 2 or 3, but that's impossible?

Will be grateful if you could clarify. Thank you.

Bunuel wrote:
2. If n is a positive integer and p is a prime number, is p a factor of n!?

(1) p is a factor of (n+2)!-n! --> if $$n=2$$ then $$(n+2)!-n!=22$$ and for $$p=2$$ then answer will be YES but for $$p=11$$ the answer will be NO. Not sufficient.

(2) p is a factor of (n+2)!/n! --> $$\frac{(n+2)!}{n!}=(n+1)(n+2)$$ --> if $$n=2$$ then $$(n+1)(n+2)=12$$ and for $$p=2$$ then answer will be YES but for $$p=3$$ the answer will be NO. Not sufficient.

(1)+(2) $$(n+2)!-n!=n!((n+1)(n+2)-1)$$. Now, $$(n+1)(n+2)-1$$ and $$(n+1)(n+2)$$ are consecutive integers. Two consecutive integers are co-prime, which means that they don't share ANY common factor but 1. For example 20 and 21 are consecutive integers, thus only common factor they share is 1. So, as from (2) $$p$$ is a factor of $$(n+1)(n+2)$$ then it can not be a factor of $$(n+1)(n+2)-1$$, thus in order $$p$$ to be a factor of $$n!*((n+1)(n+2)-1)$$, from (1), then it should be a factor of the first multiple of this expression: $$n!$$. Sufficient.

When we consider two statements together then n cannot be 1 because p cannot be a prime which is simultaneous a factor of 5 and 6.
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26 Jan 2019, 06:52
Bunuel wrote:
7. Set A consists of k distinct numbers. If n numbers are selected from the set one-by-one, where n<=k, what is the probability that numbers will be selected in ascending order?

(1) Set A consists of 12 even consecutive integers;
(2) n=5.

We should understand following two things:
1. The probability of selecting any n numbers from the set is the same. Why should any subset of n numbers have higher or lower probability of being selected than some other subset of n numbers? Probability doesn't favor any particular subset.

2. Now, consider that the subset selected is $$\{x_1, \ x_2, \ ..., \ x_n\}$$, where $$x_1<x_2<...<x_n$$. We can select this subset of numbers in $$n!$$ # of ways and out of these n! ways only one, namely $$\{x_1, \ x_2, \ ..., \ x_n\}$$ will be in ascending order. So 1 out of n!. $$P=\frac{1}{n!}$$.

Hence, according to the above the only thing we need to know to answer the question is the size of the subset (n) we are selecting from set A.

Bunuel I didn't get the solution can you please elaborate more
Here it seems you are considering only n=k what if n<k this solution doesn't hold then
Since it is mentioned <= why are we only considering =
Re: Devil's Dozen!!!   [#permalink] 26 Jan 2019, 06:52

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