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16 Aug 2008, 15:09
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Doctors in Britain have long suspected that patients who wear tinted eyeglasses are abnormally prone to depression and hypochondria. Psychological tests given there to hospital patients admitted for physical complaints like heart pain and digestive distress confirmed such a relationship. Perhaps people whose relationship to the world is psychologically painful choose such glasses to reduce visual stimulation, which is perceived as irritating. At any rate, it can be concluded that when such glasses are worn, it is because the wearer has a tendency to be depressed or hypochondriacal.

Each of the following, if true, weakens the argument EXCEPT:

(A) Some people wear tinted glasses not because they choose to do so but because a medical condition of their eyes forces them to do so.
(B) Even a depressed or hypochondriacal person can have valid medical complaints, so a doctor should perform all the usual objective tests in diagnosing such persons.
(C) The confirmatory tests were not done for places such as western North America where the usual quality of light differs from that prevailing in Britain.
(D) Fashions with respect to wearing tinted glasses differ in different parts of the world.
(E) At the hospitals where the tests were given, patients who were admitted for conditions less ambiguous than heart pain or digestive distress did not show the relationship between tinted glasses and depression or hypochondria.

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16 Aug 2008, 19:07
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(A) Some people wear tinted glasses not because they choose to do so but because a medical condition of their eyes forces them to do so.
Alternative reason hence weakens the conclusion
(C) The confirmatory tests were not done for places such as western North America where the usual quality of light differs from that prevailing in Britain.
Same and A.
(D) Fashions with respect to wearing tinted glasses differ in different parts of the world.
Weakens as it says there can be other reasons for wearing tinted glasses.
(E) At the hospitals where the tests were given, patients who were admitted for conditions less ambiguous than heart pain or digestive distress did not show the relationship between tinted glasses and depression or hypochondria.
Weakens the conclusion as it says the conclusion is not always true.

IMO B
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16 Aug 2008, 19:10
humtum0 wrote:
Source: Another Gmat Forum

Doctors in Britain have long suspected that patients who wear tinted eyeglasses are abnormally prone to depression and hypochondria. Psychological tests given there to hospital patients admitted for physical complaints like heart pain and digestive distress confirmed such a relationship. Perhaps people whose relationship to the world is psychologically painful choose such glasses to reduce visual stimulation, which is perceived as irritating. At any rate, it can be concluded that when such glasses are worn, it is because the wearer has a tendency to be depressed or hypochondriacal.

Each of the following, if true, weakens the argument EXCEPT:

(A) Some people wear tinted glasses not because they choose to do so but because a medical condition of their eyes forces them to do so. >>> clearly weaken

(B) Even a depressed or hypochondriacal person can have valid medical complaints, so a doctor should perform all the usual objective tests in diagnosing such persons. >>> weaken: a person has a tendency to be depressed or hypochondriacal because of many reasons
C) The confirmatory tests were not done for places such as western North America where the usual quality of light differs from that prevailing in Britain. >>> weaken

(D) Fashions with respect to wearing tinted glasses differ in different parts of the world. >>> look good because it is out of scope

(E) At the hospitals where the tests were given, patients who were admitted for conditions less ambiguous than heart pain or digestive distress did not show the relationship between tinted glasses and depression or hypochondria.>>> weaken

My answer is D
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20 Aug 2008, 01:17
humtum0 wrote:
Source: Another Gmat Forum

Doctors in Britain have long suspected that patients who wear tinted eyeglasses are abnormally prone to depression and hypochondria. Psychological tests given there to hospital patients admitted for physical complaints like heart pain and digestive distress confirmed such a relationship. Perhaps people whose relationship to the world is psychologically painful choose such glasses to reduce visual stimulation, which is perceived as irritating. At any rate, it can be concluded that when such glasses are worn, it is because the wearer has a tendency to be depressed or hypochondriacal.

Each of the following, if true, weakens the argument EXCEPT:

(A) Some people wear tinted glasses not because they choose to do so but because a medical condition of their eyes forces them to do so.

(B) Even a depressed or hypochondriacal person can have valid medical complaints, so a doctor should perform all the usual objective tests in diagnosing such persons.

(C) The confirmatory tests were not done for places such as western North America where the usual quality of light differs from that prevailing in Britain.

(D) Fashions with respect to wearing tinted glasses differ in different parts of the world.

(E) At the hospitals where the tests were given, patients who were admitted for conditions less ambiguous than heart pain or digestive distress did not show the relationship between tinted glasses and depression or hypochondria.

IMO D)
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20 Aug 2008, 01:30
I will go for D. Others weaen the arguments except this one. How can it relate to the context in the question whether rest of the world follows the same fashion or different?
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21 Aug 2008, 10:31
I think it should be B
the conclusion is because people have depression or hypocondria people wear tinted glasses.

i dont see how B weakens this. The other close option D does that maybe people wear tinted glasses because fashion trends vary all over the world
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21 Aug 2008, 15:17
Its seems that major Stake is for either B or D

my choice id D as its out of scope and cannot weaken/strengthen the argument.

B weakens the argument because it says that depression and hypo... are not the cause for wearing glasses
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21 Aug 2008, 18:58
OA is B
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02 Dec 2010, 08:33
Can anyone explain option c in detail. how it weakened the conclusion.

thanks in advance
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02 Dec 2010, 09:39
(C) The confirmatory tests were not done for places such as western North America where the usual quality of light differs from that prevailing in Britain.
This ans choice indicates that the quality of light, not depression, can be factor for wearing tinted glasses. The study was done only in Britain, not in North America, where the tests may have different result.
Hope this clarifies.
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02 Dec 2010, 09:47
conclusion: "when such glasses are worn, it is because the wearer has a tendency to be depressed or hypochondriacal." That is, people wear glasses because of a medical condition (hypochondria)

"A" says: Some people wear tinted glasses not because they choose to do so but because a medical condition of their eyes forces them to do so.

Option A looks more like a paraphrase of the conclusion; so, how does A weaken the argument?
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02 Dec 2010, 10:01
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Close fight between B & D.

We CAN choose B over D for the following reason:
Conclusion says: Depressed or Hypochondriacal ----> Therefore, Wear glasses.
Now B says that there can be many reasons for a person being depressed or hypochondriacal, but that has NO bearing on the conclusion that a person should or should not wear glasses. Whatever maybe the reason for the depression, the conclusion suggests that wouldn't stop the person from wearing glasses.

Now D looks out of scope, though as it says Fashion is different in different parts of the world, it IS suggesting alternative reason for the person to wear tinted glasses. So the link between depression and tinted glasses gets weakened.

Well, just my 2 cents.

P.S: this is a question from PowerScore CR Bible, but I am not sure if the answer options were the same

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02 Dec 2010, 10:15
i will opt D.
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02 Dec 2010, 11:22
Can anyone provide a good explanation as to why B is the correct answer? My thoughts led me to D, as the type of glasses worn (fashion) has nothing to do with why people where them.
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02 Dec 2010, 11:33
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humtum0 wrote:
Doctors in Britain have long suspected that patients who wear tinted eyeglasses are abnormally prone to depression and hypochondria. Psychological tests given there to hospital patients admitted for physical complaints like heart pain and digestive distress confirmed such a relationship. Perhaps people whose relationship to the world is psychologically painful choose such glasses to reduce visual stimulation, which is perceived as irritating. At any rate, it can be concluded that when such glasses are worn, it is because the wearer has a tendency to be depressed or hypochondriacal.

Each of the following, if true, weakens the argument EXCEPT:

(A) Some people wear tinted glasses not because they choose to do so but because a medical condition of their eyes forces them to do so.
(B) Even a depressed or hypochondriacal person can have valid medical complaints, so a doctor should perform all the usual objective tests in diagnosing such persons.
(C) The confirmatory tests were not done for places such as western North America where the usual quality of light differs from that prevailing in Britain.
(D) Fashions with respect to wearing tinted glasses differ in different parts of the world.
(E) At the hospitals where the tests were given, patients who were admitted for conditions less ambiguous than heart pain or digestive distress did not show the relationship between tinted glasses and depression or hypochondria.

Source: Another Gmat Forum

There seems to be some confusion here so lets try and break it down:

First of all, I read the question stem: Each of the following, if true, weakens the argument EXCEPT:

So we are looking for four options that weaken the argument (to whatever extent, but they must weaken it)
In a weaken question, we focus on the conclusion of the argument. That is what we have to weaken.
Conclusion: when such glasses are worn, it is because the wearer has a tendency to be depressed or hypochondriacal.

A strong generic statement. "When people wear tinted glasses, it means they have a tendency to be depressed". Notice that the tests cited in the argument talk about Britain only. But the conclusion derived is generic and applicable to people around the world.

(A) Some people wear tinted glasses not because they choose to do so but because a medical condition of their eyes forces them to do so.
Weakens the conclusion. When people wear tinted glasses, it could be because they have an eye condition, not because they are depressed.

(B) Even a depressed or hypochondriacal person can have valid medical complaints, so a doctor should perform all the usual objective tests in diagnosing such persons.
Does not weaken the conclusion about why people wear tinted glasses.
Just says that depressed people could also have valid medical complaints.

(C) The confirmatory tests were not done for places such as western North America where the usual quality of light differs from that prevailing in Britain.
Weakens the conclusion. The conclusion doesn't say that this is the case only in Britain. It implies that this is the general theory applicable to the whole world. But people in other places e.g. NA, could be wearing tinted glasses, due to poor light quality.

(D) Fashions with respect to wearing tinted glasses differ in different parts of the world.
Weakens the conclusion. People may be wearing tinted glasses in different parts of the world because it is fashionable to do so. Not because they are depressed.

(E) At the hospitals where the tests were given, patients who were admitted for conditions less ambiguous than heart pain or digestive distress did not show the relationship between tinted glasses and depression or hypochondria.
Weakens the conclusion. It says that only one group of people (those who had ambiguous conditions) showed a relation between glasses and depression. Other people did not.

Answer (B).
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02 Dec 2010, 21:25
Can another way of looking at this be...
only B is a generic statement (in line with the conclusion) rest all have been bucketed into specific places/diseases.. ?

Can this be an approach to such confusing problems?
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02 Dec 2010, 22:03
vaskink wrote:
Can another way of looking at this be...
only B is a generic statement (in line with the conclusion) rest all have been bucketed into specific places/diseases.. ?

Can this be an approach to such confusing problems?

I would rely on the general approach of identifying the conclusion, and then finding the response that does not weaken the agrument as stated (does not weaken could mean strengthen or just not weaken or not strengthen and be a generic stmt as you mention above).

The approach you mentioned above will likely lead to inconsistent results and not pay dividends in other CR type questions.
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07 Dec 2010, 06:03
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VeritasPrepKarishma wrote:
humtum0 wrote:
Doctors in Britain have long suspected that patients who wear tinted eyeglasses are abnormally prone to depression and hypochondria. Psychological tests given there to hospital patients admitted for physical complaints like heart pain and digestive distress confirmed such a relationship. Perhaps people whose relationship to the world is psychologically painful choose such glasses to reduce visual stimulation, which is perceived as irritating. At any rate, it can be concluded that when such glasses are worn, it is because the wearer has a tendency to be depressed or hypochondriacal.

Each of the following, if true, weakens the argument EXCEPT:

(A) Some people wear tinted glasses not because they choose to do so but because a medical condition of their eyes forces them to do so.
(B) Even a depressed or hypochondriacal person can have valid medical complaints, so a doctor should perform all the usual objective tests in diagnosing such persons.
(C) The confirmatory tests were not done for places such as western North America where the usual quality of light differs from that prevailing in Britain.
(D) Fashions with respect to wearing tinted glasses differ in different parts of the world.
(E) At the hospitals where the tests were given, patients who were admitted for conditions less ambiguous than heart pain or digestive distress did not show the relationship between tinted glasses and depression or hypochondria.

Source: Another Gmat Forum

There seems to be some confusion here so lets try and break it down:

First of all, I read the question stem: Each of the following, if true, weakens the argument EXCEPT:

So we are looking for four options that weaken the argument (to whatever extent, but they must weaken it)
In a weaken question, we focus on the conclusion of the argument. That is what we have to weaken.
Conclusion: when such glasses are worn, it is because the wearer has a tendency to be depressed or hypochondriacal.

A strong generic statement. "When people wear tinted glasses, it means they have a tendency to be depressed". Notice that the tests cited in the argument talk about Britain only. But the conclusion derived is generic and applicable to people around the world.

(A) Some people wear tinted glasses not because they choose to do so but because a medical condition of their eyes forces them to do so.
Weakens the conclusion. When people wear tinted glasses, it could be because they have an eye condition, not because they are depressed.

(B) Even a depressed or hypochondriacal person can have valid medical complaints, so a doctor should perform all the usual objective tests in diagnosing such persons.
Does not weaken the conclusion about why people wear tinted glasses.
Just says that depressed people could also have valid medical complaints.

(C) The confirmatory tests were not done for places such as western North America where the usual quality of light differs from that prevailing in Britain.
Weakens the conclusion. The conclusion doesn't say that this is the case only in Britain. It implies that this is the general theory applicable to the whole world. But people in other places e.g. NA, could be wearing tinted glasses, due to poor light quality.

(D) Fashions with respect to wearing tinted glasses differ in different parts of the world.
Weakens the conclusion. People may be wearing tinted glasses in different parts of the world because it is fashionable to do so. Not because they are depressed.

(E) At the hospitals where the tests were given, patients who were admitted for conditions less ambiguous than heart pain or digestive distress did not show the relationship between tinted glasses and depression or hypochondria.
Weakens the conclusion. It says that only one group of people (those who had ambiguous conditions) showed a relation between glasses and depression. Other people did not.

Answer (B).

Hi Karishma , Arent you leaving open the possibility that the Light quality in North America could be stronger stimuli for depression and hypochondria.
You are assuming that Light quality in North America is less stimulating to Depression and wish to check whether People are out there still wear tinted eye glasses . If they are , then they could be wearing for reasons other than that the light stimulates depression .
What if the Light is more stimulating towards depression ? In that case , people wearing glasses doesnt prove anything.
This is confusing.
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Re: CR- Doctors in Britain have long suspected that patients [#permalink]

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07 Dec 2010, 09:02
mundasingh123 wrote:
Hi Karishma , Arent you leaving open the possibility that the Light quality in North America could be stronger stimuli for depression and hypochondria.
You are assuming that Light quality in North America is less stimulating to Depression and wish to check whether People are out there still wear tinted eye glasses . If they are , then they could be wearing for reasons other than that the light stimulates depression .
What if the Light is more stimulating towards depression ? In that case , people wearing glasses doesnt prove anything.
This is confusing.

Ok, go back to the argument. It says that the results of a British study support the hypothesis that people who wear tinted glasses are more prone to depression.
Conclusion: When such glasses are worn, it is because the wearer has a tendency to be depressed.

I want to weaken it.

C: The confirmatory tests were not done for places such as western North America where the usual quality of light differs from that prevailing in Britain.

We have no data whether such a relation between glasses and depression exists in other countries. Light quality in these other countries differs from Britain. So is it possible that in other countries, people wear glasses not because they are more prone to depression but because they want to protect their eyes? This is a possible alternative explanation for use of glasses in other countries. Can I then make a generic conclusion that when someone (anywhere in the world) wears glasses, he has higher tendency to be depressed? No, I cannot. Hence it weakens my conclusion.

Even if light quality causes depression in other countries (e.g. NA), it is irrelevant to my conclusion that wearing glasses makes a person more prone to depression.
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Re: CR- Doctors in Britain have long suspected that patients   [#permalink] 07 Dec 2010, 09:02

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