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# For the writers who first gave feudalism its name, the

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For the writers who first gave feudalism its name, the [#permalink]

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21 Jul 2010, 05:59
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For the writers who first gave feudalism its name, the existence of feudalism presupposed the existence of a noble class. Yet there cannot be a noble class, properly speaking, unless both the titles that indicate superior, noble status and the inheritance of such titles are sanctioned by law. Although feudalism existed in Europe as early as the eighth century, it was not until the twelfth century, when many feudal institutions were in decline, that the hereditary transfer of legally recognized titles of nobility first appeared.
The statements above, if true, most strongly support which one of the following claims?
(A) To say that feudalism by definition requires the existence of a nobility is to employ a definition that distorts history.
(B) Prior to the twelfth century, the institution of European feudalism functioned without the presence of a dominant class.
(C) The fact that a societal group has a distinct legal status is not in itself sufficient to allow that group to be properly considered a social class.
(D) The decline of feudalism in Europe was the only cause of the rise of a European nobility.
(E) The prior existence of feudal institutions is a prerequisite for the emergence of a nobility, as defined in the strictest sense of the term.
[Reveal] Spoiler: OA
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Re: For the writers who first gave feudalism its name, the [#permalink]

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29 May 2014, 22:14
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rohitgoel15 wrote:
For the writers who first gave feudalism its name, the existence of feudalism presupposed the existence of a noble class. Yet there cannot be a noble class, properly speaking, unless both the titles that indicate superior, noble status and the inheritance of such titles are sanctioned by law. Although feudalism existed in Europe as early as the eighth century, it was not until the twelfth century, when many feudal institutions were in decline, that the hereditary transfer of legally recognized titles of nobility first appeared.
The statements above, if true, most strongly support which one of the following claims?
(A) To say that feudalism by definition requires the existence of a nobility is to employ a definition that distorts history.
(B) Prior to the twelfth century, the institution of European feudalism functioned without the presence of a dominant class.
(C) The fact that a societal group has a distinct legal status is not in itself sufficient to allow that group to be properly considered a social class.
(D) The decline of feudalism in Europe was the only cause of the rise of a European nobility.
(E) The prior existence of feudal institutions is a prerequisite for the emergence of a nobility, as defined in the strictest sense of the term.

Here is the argument in simple words:

First, you must understand what feudalism is. Here is an excerpt from the online dictionary:
Feudalism: A system of obligations that bound lords and their subjects in Europe during much of the Middle Ages. In theory, the king owned all or most of the land and gave it to his leading nobles in return for their loyalty and military service. The nobles in turn held land that peasants, including serfs, were allowed to farm in return for the peasants' labor and a portion of their produce. Under feudalism, people were born with a permanent position in society.
It is the legal and social system that evolved in W Europe in the 8th and 9th centuries, in which vassals were protected and maintained by their lords, usually through the granting of fiefs, and were required to serve under them in war...

Here is what the author tells you:

For writers who coined the term feudalism, existence of noble class was a must. Yet, the author says that legal sanction of status and inheritance of titles are a must to have a noble class. The author also says that feudalism existed in 8th century but inheritance of titles got legalized only in 12th century. The issue then is that how can "feudalism - the way it is defined" exist in 8th century if title inheritance was not legal at that time. So as far as actual history is concerned, existence of a nobility (status and title inheritance) cannot be necessary

Hence (A) makes complete sense.

(A) To say that feudalism by definition requires the existence of a nobility is to employ a definition that distorts history.

As for (C),
(C) The fact that a societal group has a distinct legal status is not in itself sufficient to allow that group to be properly considered a social class.

This cannot be inferred from the argument. The argument tells us that legal status is necessary to consider a societal group a social class. Whether it is sufficient or not, we do not know. Also, the argument only talks about the noble class; we don't know whether it holds for all social classes.
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21 Jul 2010, 07:41
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Conclusion :

The coexistence of feudalism and noble class is NOT to be treated causal in nature. Law is required to sanction titles of nobility. However its not true that existence of feudalism required the existence of noble class.

B, D and E contradict the arg.

C has no bearing on the argument.
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21 Jul 2010, 19:50
A
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21 Jul 2010, 21:32
I pick E, but I think I understand why A is right now.

Argument:

History: Feudalism is in the same time with noble class, in 8th century.
Nobility, first appear in 12th century.

A - Nobility appear first Feudalism is wrong according to history ==> Like what the argument said

B - Dominant class could be king, knights... we don't know, so we can't say for sure feudaslim functioned without a dominant class -> WRONG

C - Societal group and social class were not discussed -> Out of scope -> WRONG

D - "The only cause" -> Too extreme, without proper evidence in the argument -> WRONG

E - Feudal institutions is a prerequisite of nobility -> sound like Feudal is a MUST for nobility to happen, there is no evidence in the argument suggest that -> WRONG
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26 Aug 2010, 22:14
by POE i was down to A and C-C because I JUST DIDNT UNDERSTAND what they meant in C So it had to be A
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27 Aug 2010, 01:58
IMO A but @ 3:22...
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04 Sep 2010, 01:16
I picked D first... Now I know where I went wrong
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20 Oct 2010, 19:46
A but 2:32 : |
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21 Oct 2010, 10:00
i had pick up C ..but from the above replies..comes to know its A
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Re: For the writers who first gave feudalism its name, the [#permalink]

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12 May 2012, 00:09
This one is such a tough one. I understand the question but I don't quite get option A. I originally picked C and agreed it was not the best option.
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Re: For the writers who first gave feudalism its name, the [#permalink]

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22 Jan 2013, 10:15
Some rephrasing might just help here: the author is pointing out that a noble class needs the legitimacy of a stated rule, this was not until the 12th century. This makes B C and E unlikely. D it's actually against the argument, looks to me.., so A.
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Re: For the writers who first gave feudalism its name, the [#permalink]

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22 Jan 2013, 19:15
rohitgoel15 wrote:
For the writers who first gave feudalism its name, the existence of feudalism presupposed the existence of a noble class. Yet there cannot be a noble class, properly speaking, unless both the titles that indicate superior, noble status and the inheritance of such titles are sanctioned by law. Although feudalism existed in Europe as early as the eighth century, it was not until the twelfth century, when many feudal institutions were in decline, that the hereditary transfer of legally recognized titles of nobility first appeared.
The statements above, if true, most strongly support which one of the following claims?
(A) To say that feudalism by definition requires the existence of a nobility is to employ a definition that distorts history.
(B) Prior to the twelfth century, the institution of European feudalism functioned without the presence of a dominant class.
(C) The fact that a societal group has a distinct legal status is not in itself sufficient to allow that group to be properly considered a social class.
(D) The decline of feudalism in Europe was the only cause of the rise of a European nobility.
(E) The prior existence of feudal institutions is a prerequisite for the emergence of a nobility, as defined in the strictest sense of the term.

For the writers who first gave feudalism its name, the existence of feudalism presupposed the existence of a noble class. - Opening premise

Yet there cannot be a noble class, properly speaking, unless both the titles that indicate superior, noble status and the inheritance of such titles are sanctioned by law. - Negating the flow with a YET.

=> opening premise nobleclass -> feudalism.
+
second premise there cannot be a noble class.
=
combing the above two you get option A.

The other statement marks the timeline and with the options given it is not necessary to discuss.

That`s my take.
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Re: For the writers who first gave feudalism its name, the [#permalink]

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29 May 2014, 22:32
rohitgoel15 wrote:
For the writers who first gave feudalism its name, the existence of feudalism presupposed the existence of a noble class. Yet there cannot be a noble class, properly speaking, unless both the titles that indicate superior, noble status and the inheritance of such titles are sanctioned by law. Although feudalism existed in Europe as early as the eighth century, it was not until the twelfth century, when many feudal institutions were in decline, that the hereditary transfer of legally recognized titles of nobility first appeared.

The statements above, if true, most strongly support which one of the following claims?

(A) To say that feudalism by definition requires the existence of a nobility is to employ a definition that distorts history.
(B) Prior to the twelfth century, the institution of European feudalism functioned without the presence of a dominant class.
(C) The fact that a societal group has a distinct legal status is not in itself sufficient to allow that group to be properly considered a social class.
(D) The decline of feudalism in Europe was the only cause of the rise of a European nobility.
(E) The prior existence of feudal institutions is a prerequisite for the emergence of a nobility, as defined in the strictest sense of the term.

This is an inference question, so let's first understand the facts.

Some people claim that if we have Feudalism, we have a Noble Class. Technically, a Noble Class requires both Title Laws and Inheritance Laws, and we didn't see Inheritance Laws until the 12th century, but Feudalism definitely existed in the 8th century.

So according to the strict definition, Feudalism didn't exist until the 12th century, but in reality Feudalism was alive way before then. --> the strict definition must be too narrow, as it can't accurately account for reality. That's answer A.

As for C: Do we have any reason to believe that "legal status does not necessarily imply social class"? I think to be able to infer this we would need to see two things: (1) an example of something with legal status but no social class, and (2) and example of something with social class but no legal status. Even if we try to fit the Noble Class discussed in the question to one of those two examples, we would need the other one as well, and it's just not there.
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Re: For the writers who first gave feudalism its name, the [#permalink]

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01 Nov 2014, 10:20
Tough one. Went with C initially.
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Re: For the writers who first gave feudalism its name, the [#permalink]

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Re: For the writers who first gave feudalism its name, the [#permalink]

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Re: For the writers who first gave feudalism its name, the [#permalink]

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29 Jun 2016, 21:42
For the writers who first gave feudalism its name, the existence of feudalism presupposed the existence of a noble class. Yetthere cannot be a noble class, properly speaking, unless both the titles that indicate superior, noble status and the inheritance of such titles are sanctioned by law. Although feudalism existed in Europe as early as the eighth century, it was not until the twelfth century, when many feudal institutions were in decline, that the hereditary transfer of legally recognized titles of nobility first appeared.
The statements above, if true, most strongly support which one of the following claims?
(A) To say that feudalism by definition requires the existence of a nobility is to employ a definition that distorts history. (This is what initial statements say) Can Be --keep it
(B) Prior to the twelfth century, the institution of European feudalism functioned without the presence of a dominant class.------ Opposite answer (in the last lines it's stated that feudalism existed 8-12 century.
(C) The fact that a societal group has a distinct legal status is not in itself sufficient to allow that group to be properly considered a social class.---- opposite answer---as per statements there can't be noble class unless such class is sanctioned by law.
(D) The decline of feudalism in Europe was the only cause of the rise of a European nobility.------no where mentioned and extreme (only)----opposite answer
(E) The prior existence of feudal institutions is a prerequisite for the emergence of a nobility, as defined in the strictest sense of the term.----opposite answer
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Re: For the writers who first gave feudalism its name, the [#permalink]

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02 Jul 2016, 04:34
thiswas a tough one.
"A" makes sense the most.
Re: For the writers who first gave feudalism its name, the   [#permalink] 02 Jul 2016, 04:34
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