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# GMAT Diagnostic Test Question 6

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Joined: 31 Dec 1969

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Location: Russian Federation
GMAT 3: 740 Q40 V50
GMAT 4: 700 Q48 V38
GMAT 5: 710 Q45 V41
GMAT 6: 680 Q47 V36
GMAT 9: 740 Q49 V42
GMAT 11: 500 Q47 V33
GMAT 14: 760 Q49 V44
WE: Supply Chain Management (Energy and Utilities)
Re: GMAT Diagnostic Test Question 6 [#permalink]

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04 Oct 2010, 05:25
Ahh... Of course.... Thanks!

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Re: GMAT Diagnostic Test Question 6 [#permalink]

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15 Dec 2010, 19:35
HanibalSmith wrote:
This may seem like a stupid question but could someone please explain what happend to 1/2^8 * 2^8 in the nominator from the second to third step?

I tried to figure it out myself and looked up the math basics topic but haven't been successful.

Thanks!

well, they cancel each other. Think about a more simple equation. 1/2 *2 = 1 same principle. The numerators multiply together to get 2, and the denominators multiply together to get 2. which 2/2 = 1. all whole numbers can be made into fractions by putting a 1 in the denominator. so 2= 2/1 or in this case 2^8 = (2^8)/1

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Re: GMAT Diagnostic Test Question 6 [#permalink]

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03 Jan 2011, 19:37
This is a good question, tests basics but offers plenty of opportunities for slipping up to those who arent careful with their working. Guess who fell in that trap? Feel like kicking myself for getting this wrong!
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Champions aren't made in the gyms. Champions are made from something they have deep inside them -- a desire, a dream, a vision.

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Re: GMAT Diagnostic Test Question 6 [#permalink]

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14 Jan 2011, 03:57
Cannot be a 750 level question...

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Re: GMAT Diagnostic Test Question 6 [#permalink]

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04 Jul 2011, 16:48
Wouldnt (1/64)^1/2 = sqrt1/sqrt64 = sqrt1/8? How did we get rid of the sqrt in sqrt1/sqrt64?

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Re: GMAT Diagnostic Test Question 6 [#permalink]

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10 Sep 2011, 00:48
Easy question... not a 750 level one

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Re: GMAT Diagnostic Test Question 6 [#permalink]

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28 Oct 2011, 22:46
Not a 750+ question

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Re: GMAT Diagnostic Test Question 6 [#permalink]

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30 Apr 2012, 19:02
dzyubam wrote:
Explanation:
 Rating:

We just have to simplify the expression:

$$\frac{\frac{1}{8} * (\frac{1}{16})^2 * 4^4}{\left(\frac{1}{64}\right)^{\frac{1}{2}} * 2^{-4}} = \frac{\frac{1}{2^3} * \frac{1}{2^8} * 2^8}{\frac{1}{8} * \frac{1}{2^4}} = \frac{\frac{1}{2^3}}{\frac{1}{2^3} * \frac{1}{2^4}} = 2^4 = 16$$

Even simpler without having to reduce to base 2.

(1/8) x (1/16)^2 x 4^4 = 1/8 x 1/16^2 x 16^2 so 16^2 and 1/16^2 cancel leave 1/8 numerator

(1/64)^1/2 x 2^-4 = 1/8 * 1/16 in denominator

1/8's in numerator and denominator cancel out leaving 1/(1/16) which = 1 * 16 = 16

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Re: GMAT Diagnostic Test Question 6 [#permalink]

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19 Sep 2012, 23:23
basics of decimal..

1/8 *16* 8 =16

Ans: 16
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Rajeev Nambyar
Chennai, India.

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Re: GMAT Diagnostic Test Question 6 [#permalink]

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07 Jan 2013, 11:55
still wondering how you're transforming the term from 1/2^-4 to 16.. anyone available for help? :D

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Re: GMAT Diagnostic Test Question 6 [#permalink]

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08 Jan 2013, 04:21
Well, thx Bunuel, got it!

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Re: GMAT Diagnostic Test Question 6   [#permalink] 08 Jan 2013, 04:21

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# GMAT Diagnostic Test Question 6

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