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Intern
Joined: 22 Sep 2006
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13 Nov 2006, 21:33
Dear All,

I had a question regarding the math section in the GMAT. I guess this would apply to either PS or DS. If the problem states that there are two variables, x and y, but does not explicitly state that they are distinct, can we always assume that x and y can be equal? This has always created some confusion for me as I have progressed in my studes.

Shai

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Joined: 01 May 2006
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14 Nov 2006, 00:35
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If nothing states that x != y, then x could be equal y. Yes.

Concretly, the number of possibilities of x=y also depends on whether x is relatively defined to y by an equation such as the one of a line : y = 3*x+2. For this case, we know that we have only couple (x,y) that matchs x=y.... when x = -1.

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Intern
Joined: 28 Jan 2014
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11 Mar 2014, 13:26
shai82 wrote:
Dear All,

I had a question regarding the math section in the GMAT. I guess this would apply to either PS or DS. If the problem states that there are two variables, x and y, but does not explicitly state that they are distinct, can we always assume that x and y can be equal? This has always created some confusion for me as I have progressed in my studes.

Shai

Hi Shai82, just as Fig said, in general in math questions, unless something is explicitly stated as not being possible you should assume that it can be possible.

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