Having more than the usual numbers of fingers or toes on the

Hi guys,

Good question GMAT TIGER!

IMO C

A. Having more than the usual numbers of fingers or toes numbers should be in singular
B. Having had more than the usual number of fingers or toes Having had?
C. Having more than the usual number of fingers or toes Hold
D. To have more than the usual number of fingers or toes for me, the infinitive here is not needed
E. To have more than the usual numbers of fingers or toes numbers should be in singular

OA?

Cheers

Having more than the usual numbers of fingers or toes on the hands or feet is termed polydactyly.

a) Having more than the usual numbers of fingers or toes --> you would never use "the numbers of..."
b) Having had more than the usual number of fingers or toes
c) Having more than the usual number of fingers or toes --> my pick
d) To have more than the usual number of fingers or toes --> awkward to start with an infinitive. you should always postpone infinivites and use the "placeholder it" such that the sentence reads: "It is termed polydactyly to have more than the usual number of fingers..."
e) To have more than the usual numbers of fingers or toes

+1 for C.

Termed as can be replaced by : in the current context.

Polydactyly : having more than the usual number of fingers or toes on the hands or feet.
VS
Polydactyly : to have more than the usual number of fingers or toes on the hands or feet.

C is better as Polydactly is a noun and "having...." is the adjective that modifies it.

Crick

Can you explain why option D is incorrect & C is correct. Regards, Fame

Having more than the usual numbers of fingers or toes on the hands or feet is termed polydactyly.

(a) Having more than the usual numbers of fingers or toes
(b) Having had more than the usual number of fingers or toes - "having had" means one had it in past but does not have it anymore
(c) Having more than the usual number of fingers or toes - correct
(d) To have more than the usual number of fingers or toes - Incorrect meaning - "to have "suggests as if we have a choice
(e) To have more than the usual numbers of fingers or toes

C is correct.

I'm happy to help with this. I am answering a pm from Fame.

This is an MGMAT question. Normally, I hold MGMAT in the highest regard, but I will say --- sometimes a few of their questions get into some reasonably obscure territory is that is bit more picayune than the GMAT SC would touch. I believe this is such a question.

First of all, the word "number" is correct, not "numbers." Therefore, (A) & (E) are out. Furthermore, (B) is simply ridiculous, so that's out.
The real question is (C) vs. (D), gerund vs. infinitive as the subject. For more on gerunds, see this:
https://magoosh.com/gmat/2012/gmat-gramm ... d-phrases/
For more on infinitives, see:
https://magoosh.com/gmat/2012/infinitive ... -the-gmat/

Notice, first of all, there is NO PARALLELISM in this sentence. We have the verb "is termed" and then we have the noun, the term, "polydactyly." Both gerunds and infinitive can act as nouns. In particular, both gerunds and infinitive can be subjects of sentences.
To err is human. --- Seneca the Younger (4 BC-65 AD) --- infinitive subject
Reading classical Latin literature can be edifying. --- gerund subject

What is the difference between having a gerund as a subject vs. having an infinitive as a subject? There's no clear and well-defined rule. There's nothing cut-and-dry. In certain instances, one will sound more natural than the other, but that's far from rigorous. In this particular sentence, I will say --- for reasons I can't articulate, (C) does some more natural, but I believe there is absolutely nothing wrong with (D). In my mind, the difference between (C) & (D) is too slight for this to be the defining split on a SC question. As much as I respect MGMAT in general, I think I will say --- this is not a particularly GMAT-like SC question, because it lacks a clear & unambiguous split between (C) & (D).

Here's a link where Ron Purewal himself says the MGMAT folks were debating this question.
https://www.manhattangmat.com/forums/ger ... t3133.html
The fact that the bright people who wrote this question original have to debate about it means that it lacks the ringing clarity that characterizes a good GMAT-like SC question.

Does all this make sense?
Mike

I will go with C

Reason: Gerunds rather than infinitives are preferred as subjects when the main clause denotes something that actually exists/occurs, and infinitives where something unreal or hypothetical is discussed. Since this medical conditonal actually occurs, the gerund is preferable here.

Experts please confirm.

Hi Mike,

Brilliant explanation!
But I have a doubt from the meaning perspective of the sentence. "Having" may imply "eating". Then Having fingers or toes is awkward. So I thought "To have" is more precise.
Could you please throw some light. Sorry if this is naive. :D

Dear fantasycracker,
I'm happy to respond.

Using the verb "to have" ("has", "had", "having", etc.) as a synonym for "to eat" is an idiomatic colloquialism that never never never will appear anywhere on the GMAT. That will never be the primary implication of the word.

Does this make sense?

Mike

HI, How to choose between Number and Numbers

SALAKSHYA, If you're just going to be quoting 1 number then it will be number. I have a number of cars and houses. How many? About 20 cars and 10 houses (quoting 1 number for each).

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