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I have faced problems with these kinds of questions often...finally after reading Sara's note I am clear on how to handle these problems... would like to present a summary of my understanding to clear potential doubts in the minds of people who are struggling with these concepts...
---------------------------------------------
It is not correct to say -

HEATING OIL PRICES THIS YEAR ARE EXPECTED TO BE HIGHER THAN LAST YEAR – this way we are comparing heating oil prices of this year with the LAST YEAR (an illogical comparison) where as what we intend to compare are the prices of heating oil in each of the two years).

So we must rephrase it as - HEATING OIL PRICES THIS YEAR ARE EXPECTED TO BE HIGHER THAN THE HEATING OIL PRICE OF LAST YEAR

WHICH CAN BE ELLIPSED TO

HEATING OIL PRICES THIS YEAR ARE EXPECTED TO BE HIGHER THAN LAST YEAR’S [PRICE]
OR HEATING OIL PRICES THIS YEAR ARE EXPECTED TO BE HIGHER THAN THEY WERE LAST YEAR

Another form similar to the one above is -
THIS YEAR, THE HEATING OIL PRICES ARE EXPECTED TO BE HIGHER THAN THEY WERE LAST YEAR (NOT HIGHER THAN LAST YEAR)
Or ellipsed form THIS YEAR, THE HEATING OIL PRICES ARE EXPECTED TO BE HIGHER THAN LAST YEAR’S [HEATING OIL PRICE]

Now if we reword the whole sentence as below – (we have removed THIS YEAR from the first part of the sentence and positioned it AFTER the main verb (are)

HEATING OIL PRICES ARE EXPECTED TO BE HIGHER THIS YEAR THAN LAST
Now the comparison focus shifts from Price to Time frame (this year versus last)
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Hello Everyone!

Let's tackle this question, one issue at a time, and narrow it down to the correct answer quickly! To start, here is the original question with any major differences between the options highlighted in orange:

Heating-oil prices are expected to be higher this year than last because refiners are paying about $5 a barrel more for crude oil than they were last year.

(A) Heating-oil prices are expected to be higher this year than last because refiners are paying about $5 a barrel more for crude oil than they were
(B) Heating-oil prices are expected to rise higher this year over last because refiners pay about $5 a barrel for crude oil more than they did
(C) Expectations are for heating-oil prices to be higher this year than last year's because refiners are paying about $5 a barrel for crude oil more than they did
(D) It is the expectation that heating-oil prices will be higher this year over last because refiners are paying about $5 a barrel more for crude oil now than what they were
(E) It is the expected that heating-oil prices will rise higher this year than last year's because refiners pay about $5 a barrel for crude oil more than they did

Because almost the entire sentence is underlined here, there is a lot we can focus on:

1. Heating-oil prices... / Expectations are for heating-oil prices... / It is the expectation that heating-oil prices... (Conciseness/Meaning)
2. than last / over last (Idioms/Parallelism)
3. pay / are paying (Verb Tense/Meaning)
4. ...more for crude oil / ...for crude oil more (Parallelism/Meaning/Conciseness)


The first one that will eliminate 2-3 options right away is #2 on our list: than last vs. over last. This is an issue of idiom usage! We know that it's correct to say that one thing is "higher than" another, and that it is NOT okay to say one thing is "higher over" another. Therefore, we can eliminate the options that use "higher over."

(A) Heating-oil prices are expected to be higher this year than last because refiners are paying about $5 a barrel more for crude oil than they were
(B) Heating-oil prices are expected to rise higher this year over last because refiners pay about $5 a barrel for crude oil more than they did
(C) Expectations are for heating-oil prices to be higher this year than last year's because refiners are paying about $5 a barrel for crude oil more than they did
(D) It is the expectation that heating-oil prices will be higher this year over last because refiners are paying about $5 a barrel more for crude oil now than what they were
(E) It is the expected that heating-oil prices will rise higher this year than last year's because refiners pay about $5 a barrel for crude oil more than they did

There you go! We can eliminate options B & D because they don't follow the proper idiom structure "higher than."

The next one that seems easy to tackle is #4 on our list: more for crude oil vs. for crude oil more. Each phrase is grammatically correct, but they mean two completely different things:

...refiners are paying about $5 a barrel more for crude oil... = The price of each barrel of oil is $5 higher than before.
...refiners are paying about $5 a barrel for crude oil more... = The price of each barrel of oil is only $5, but refiners are paying that $5 more often than before.

It makes more sense to say that the price of a barrel of crude oil increased by $5, rather than saying it's always been $5 and refiners just pay that more often. So let's eliminate the options that mess up the meaning here:

(A) Heating-oil prices are expected to be higher this year than last because refiners are paying about $5 a barrel more for crude oil than they were
(C) Expectations are for heating-oil prices to be higher this year than last year's because refiners are paying about $5 a barrel for crude oil more than they did
(E) It is the expected that heating-oil prices will rise higher this year than last year's because refiners pay about $5 a barrel for crude oil more than they did

There you have it - option A was the correct choice! It uses concise language, correct idioms, and logical meaning! We didn't even have to deal with the other 2 items on our list because we focused on the ones that eliminated 2-3 options at a time.


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Heating-oil prices are expected to be higher this year than last because refiners are paying about $5 a barrel more for crude oil than they were last year.

A. Heating-oil prices are expected to be higher this year than last because refiners are paying about $5 a barrel more for crude oil than they were While The pronoun “they” could cause some degree of confusion, in comparison to the other options, the verb form “expected” is better.

B. Heating-oil prices are expected to rise higher this year over last because refiners pay about $5 a barrel for crude oil more than they did “Rise higher” is redundant.

C. Expectations are for heating-oil prices to be higher this year than last year's because refiners are paying about $5 a barrel for crude oil more than they did The comparison is awkward. It would be better to say “Expectations are for heating-oil prices to be higher this year than last year.” Also, the noun form “expectations” is not as preferred as the verb “expected.”

D. It is the expectation that heating-oil prices will be higher for this year over last because refiners are paying about $5 a barrel more for crude oil now than what they were The phrase “higher for this year” is awkward. Also, the noun form “expectations” is not as preferred as the verb “expected.”

E. It is expected that heating-oil prices will rise higher this year than last year's because refiners pay about $5 a barrel for crude oil more than they did “Rise higher” is redundant.

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spc11 wrote:
I do not follow the explanation for this question.

Can somebody please explain why this sentence is correct (original)?

Heating-oil prices are expected to be higher this year than last because refiners are paying about $5 a barrel more for crude oil than they were last year.
My doubts are in these two phrases: "this year than last" and " more for crude oil than they were last year "

Thanks!!

Dear spc11,
I'm happy to respond. :-)

My friend, you may find some answer to your question in the thread above, but I am happy to discuss this as well. One very tricky issue, particularly difficult for folks whose native language is something other than English, is the issue of dropping repeated words in the second branch of parallelism. See this blog article:
Dropping Common Words in Parallel on the GMAT

Consider an expanded version of the sentence:
Heating-oil prices are expected to be higher this year than the heating oil prices last year because refiners are paying about $5 a barrel more for crude oil than they were paying for a barrel of crude oil last year.
That is the whole sentence, with absolutely nothing omitted, so that everything is perfectly clear. The GMAT would consider this completely redundant and much longer than necessary, because every single word in red is repeated. The words in red are words in the second branch or the parallelism that already appeared in the first branch. From the GMAT's point of view, it is redundant to repeat information in the second branch that we already know form the first branch. Thus, the GMAT recommends dropping all the words in red: when we do that, we get the prompt version, choice (A), of this SC problem, a sleek and elegant sentence. The GMAT loves elegance.

Your job on the GMAT SC is to see a sentence with the words already omitted in the second branch of parallelism and to figure out what words from the first branch would be needed to make sense of the second branch.

Does all this make sense?
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blitzkriegxX wrote:
I am confused with the use of "than". I will try to elaborate my confusion with official examples.

OG 19 - 758.

Prices at the producer level are only 1.3 percent higher now than a year ago and are going down, even though floods in the Midwest and drought in the south are hurting crops and therefore raised corn and soybean prices.

(A) than a year ago and are going down, even though floods in the Midwest and drought in the south are hurting crops and therefore raised

According to the OG explanantion this comparison in (A) is INCORRECT because it seems to be comparing the "prices" to "last year" which is illogical.
.
.
OG 19 - 772. (this question)

Heating-oil prices are expected to be higher this year than last because refiners are paying about $5 a barrel more for crude oil than they were last year.

(A) Heating-oil prices are expected to be higher this year than last because refiners are paying about $5 a barrel more for crude oil than they were

According to OG this comparison is CORRECT.


I fail to see the difference between the two and why one is correct and the other incorrect.

Great observation, blitzkriegxX. And I'm afraid that your question doesn't really have a great answer.

So here's a crappy-but-honest answer: the OG explanations are actually not very good. The people who write the OG explanations are generally random contractors who are NOT affiliated with GMAC in any way. (I interviewed an OG explanation-writer once. She was a long, long way from being an expert on the GMAT.) The questions that appear in the OGs are generally written years -- or even decades -- before they're released to the general public. So whoever writes the explanations is left to guess what the original question-writers' intent was.

That's why we see so many flaws in the explanations. There's a lot of lazy stuff in the OGs. For example, answer choices are often dismissed as "awkward", and that means basically nothing, since TONS of correct answers are pretty darned awkward. And if you look hard enough, you'll find plenty of contradictions from one question to the next -- for example, an idiom dismissed as "awkward" in one question might be identified as correct in another. :idontknow:

Back to answer choice (A) from the question from the other thread:

Quote:
Prices at the producer level are only 1.3 percent higher now than a year ago and are going down, even though floods in the Midwest and drought in the south are hurting crops and therefore raised corn and soybean prices.

I think the OG explanation is garbage here. The comparison you identified ("prices... are only 1.3 percent higher now than a year ago...") seems perfectly decent to me. But as pk123 mentioned, the verb tenses are a problem: "floods... and drought... are hurting crops and therefore raised... prices." Why the heck would those two things be in different tenses? It's saying that floods and draught raised prices in the past, but "are hurting crops" right now. That's nonsense.

To be fair, the correct answer changes the comparison to something that's arguably a little bit clearer: "prices are higher... than THOSE a year ago..." I just don't think that the comparison is the biggest factor, and the OG did a lousy job of communicating that.

Bottom line: take OG explanations with a grain of salt, because they're far from perfect.

I'm sure that this is among the least-satisfying things you've ever read on GMAT Club, but I hope it helps a bit, anyway!
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A IMO
rise and higher together are redundant - B/E are out
last year's doesn't make a parallel consturction- C is out
and between A and D , D is wordy I think. Besides, using 'than' seems to be more correct than 'over' :roll:

What's OA?
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Example of ellipsis

Heating-oil prices are expected to be higher this year than last [year's prices] ----> Bulls eye

A is correct. "expected to be" is correct idiom. and "paying" is correct.

hence A.

C: is comparing expectations of this year vs the last year's. change of meaning. OUT

A it is.
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Ellipsis is at its full play in this topic. Let me paraphrase it, with the elliptical elements in parenthesis.

A) Heating-oil prices are expected to be higher this year
than last (year) because refiners are paying about $5 a
barrel more for crude oil than they were (paying) last year.
One can now see how the comparisons are smugly fitting in.

2.) It is expected that heating-oil prices will rise
higher this year than last year's because refiners
pay about $5 a barrel for crude oil more than
they did

A cue for the correctness of the comparison can be had from the placement of the comparison -marker such as than etc. The comparison marker is place placed either next or prior to what it compares. Here in this case, than is placed next to this year and therefore the comparison should legally appear with a similar feature such as last year and not last year’s.

Another example

Even though Béla Bartók’s music has proved less popular than Igor Stravinsky’s and less influential than Arnold Schonberg’s, it is no less important.
(A) Stravinsky’s and less influential than Arnold Schonberg’s, it
(B) Stravinsky’s and less influential than Arnold Schonberg’s, he
(C) Stravinsky’s is and less influential than Arnold Schonberg’s is, it
(D) Stravinsky and not as influential as Arnold Schonberg, he
(E) Stravinsky and not as influential as Arnold Schonberg, it

Now the comparison- marker ‘than’ is placed just before the Arnold Schonberg’s, implying that something that belongs to Stravinsky is being compared. And the text says that Béla Bartók’s music is compared with Arnold Schonberg’s music. Here music is elliptical

Hope Chocie E is no serious contender
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I am confused with the use of "than". I will try to elaborate my confusion with official examples.

OG 19 - 758.

Prices at the producer level are only 1.3 percent higher now than a year ago and are going down, even though floods in the Midwest and drought in the south are hurting crops and therefore raised corn and soybean prices.

(A) than a year ago and are going down, even though floods in the Midwest and drought in the south are hurting crops and therefore raised

According to the OG explanantion this comparison in (A) is INCORRECT because it seems to be comparing the "prices" to "last year" which is illogical.
.
.
OG 19 - 772. (this question)

Heating-oil prices are expected to be higher this year than last because refiners are paying about $5 a barrel more for crude oil than they were last year.

(A) Heating-oil prices are expected to be higher this year than last because refiners are paying about $5 a barrel more for crude oil than they were

According to OG this comparison is CORRECT.


I fail to see the difference between the two and why one is correct and the other incorrect.
Please help me clarify this egmat GMATNinja sayantanc2k mikemcgarry
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Yes by the process of elimination we reach A.

Can some one explain what exactly are we comparing here and whether the things being compared are parallel.

IMO we are comparing the prices last year with the prices this year and the years.
From a parallelism perspective is A correct? If yes How?

Experts please comment.

Thanks
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cici wrote:
Heating-oil prices are expected to be higher this year than last because refiners are paying about $5 a barrel more for crude oil than they were last year.


(A) Heating-oil prices are expected to be higher this year than last because refiners are paying about $5 a barrel more for crude oil than they were

(B) Heating-oil prices are expected to rise higher this year over last because refiners pay about $5 a barrel for crude oil more than they did

(C) Expectations are for heating-oil prices to be higher this year than last year's because refiners are paying about $5 a barrel for crude oil more than they did

(D) It is the expectation that heating-oil prices will be higher this year over last because refiners are paying about $5 a barrel more for crude oil now than what they were

(E) It is the expected that heating-oil prices will rise higher this year than last year's because refiners pay about $5 a barrel for crude oil more than they did

OG2017 SC772

LordStark wrote:
GMATNinja wrote:

But for whatever it’s worth: “they” still seems to refer perfectly reasonably to “refiners.” And the word “did” replaces the verb “pay” (or “paid”, since “did” is past tense). So those things are OK.

Hi GMATNinja generis
As per Manhattan SC guide
Quote:
The first instance of the verb should usually match the helping verb in tense. If you need to change tenses, repeat the whole verb in the new tense.
Wrong: I have never seen an aardvark, but last year my father DID.
Right: I have never seen an aardvark, but last year my father saw one.

So if we use the same principle in the options B, C, & E.
B. "did" can be replaced by "pay"
C. "did" can be replaced by "are paying"
E. "did" can be replaced by "pay"
and that is incorrect. As per meaning of the sentence, we need "were paying" in the last part of the sentence.

What is the gap in my understanding?

thanks

LordStark , there is no gap in your understanding. (And you are working really hard! I can't keep up with your posts:) )

The book is wrong.

Ron Purewal explains that those particular parts are wrong:

"that's not accurate. in fact, one of the prime uses of helping verbs in parallel constructions is to express the same verb in a different tense.."

we may already have gotten rid of that "rule" in the 5th edition books.


The authors did not get rid of the rule.

Take a look HERE.

The posts by Ron P in the next link are good. They are about helping verbs and the instances in which do, does, or did will work. (Almost always.)

The posts can be found here, on this thread

Finally GMATNinja 's explanation is really good. His explanation is HERE. The did in the other options is a red herring. GMATNinja explained the other options' errors.

HERE is an official question involving the use of did that might help more than this question.

Finally, here is a forum topic thread dedicated to ellipsis and substitution, a discussion that includes mikemcgarry and egmat.

I think that reading those two threads will be much more productive than staying with this one. :-)

Hope that analysis helps.
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ueh55406 wrote:
Aren't we comparing two different things in Opt. A? prices will be higher this year than last year? maybe I am being too mechanical, but this sounds like we're comparing prices this year with the (last) year, itself. while we need to compare prices of the two years.

Hi ueh55406, you ask an interesting question. I am assuming that you intend to suggest that the verb were needed to be explicitly mentioned after than (...than were last year)

In general, we indeed need to repeat the verb with the correct tense, if the tense is changing.

However, GMAT shows flexibility in this regard if the implied verb after the comparison indicator is a simple linking verb (especially is/was/were).

This is what's going on here:

Heating-oil prices are expected to be higher this year than (were) last (year)

Since a simple linking verb (were) is being implied in the second part, it's fine to assume it, despite the tense change.

There are multiple other examples in OG:

Industry analysts said that the recent rise in fuel prices may be an early signal that prices of gasoline and heating oil will stay higher than usual through the end of the year.

Again, the actual sentence is:

...prices of gasoline and heating oil will stay higher than (is) usual....

Since a simple linking verb (is) is being implied in the second part, it's fine to assume it, despite the tense change.

On the other hand, instead of a simple linking verb, if an action verb is involved and there is a tense change, then it becomes mandatory to explicitly mention the verb. So, following would be incorrect:

Peter works harder now than one year back.

Since an action verb (work) is involved, we need to explicitly mention the verb with the correct tense. So, the correct sentence would be:

Peter works harder now than he did one year back.

p.s. Our book EducationAisle Sentence Correction Nirvana discusses this comparison related concept of "linking verbs", its application and examples in significant detail. If you or someone is interested, PM me your email-id; I can mail the corresponding section.
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holdem wrote:
Can please someone explain, under what circumstances “they were” is right in this case?

Isn’t it referring to “refiners are paying”?
Therefore “refiners are paying 5$ more, than they did last year”, instead of “… than they were” last year?

Were payed sounds totally weird to me, even if agree with the rest of the official answer :(




Hi holdem,

It’s a case of ellipsis and the word missing is ‘paying’ not ‘paid’. So, the verb is ‘were paying’ not ‘were paid’.

Let’s take two simplified versions of the sentence to understand the difference in the meaning conveyed by ‘were’ and ‘did’ in this context.

Refiners are paying 5$ more for crude oil than they were (paying) last year.

The past continuous tense (were) tells us that this action of paying happens weekly/monthly/quarterly. So, when we compare ‘are paying’ with ‘were paying’ it means that the payments were made in the same interval last year as well.

Refiners are paying 5$ more for crude oil than they did (pay) last year.

The simple past tense (did) here tells us that this action happened once in the past. So, the refiners are paying 5$ more than they paid last year. It means that last year there was only one payment of X dollars and this year the refiners are paying ‘X+5’ dollars weekly/monthly/quarterly.


Hope this helps! :)
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The crux of the problem lies in the fact that we are comparing what refiners are paying this year with what they were paying last year. Here the 'paying' part is elided in the second arm. Please note the parallelism of progressive tense ‘are paying’ and ‘were paying’ in choices A and D.
Therefore, all choices that use the simple past tense ‘did’ are out. Between A and D, D has a problem of saying on one hand that it is an expectation and then a categorical 'will be higher'. Both are antithetical.
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I do not follow the explanation for this question.

Can somebody please explain why this sentence is correct (original)?

Heating-oil prices are expected to be higher this year than last because refiners are paying about $5 a barrel more for crude oil than they were last year.
My doubts are in these two phrases: "this year than last" and " more for crude oil than they were last year "

Thanks!!
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Re: Heating-oil prices are expected to be higher this year than last becau [#permalink]
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ueh55406 wrote:
the heart the question was "trade deficit between x and y is less than P and q ( x,y,p,q are all countries). Now comes the same issue. we're comparing trade deficit of X and Y with the country P and Q themselves (which is incorrect, as per the solution).

Remember that we are supposed to be picking an answer choice that conveys the meaning in the most unambiguous manner.

So, couple of ways in which this meaning ambiguity can be resolved is;

trade deficit between x and y is less than is between P and q
- The explicit mentioning of the verb is immediately after than, clearly indicates that the only way we can interpret this is: ...than (trade deficit) is between P and q.

Or

trade deficit between x and y is less than that between P and q
- The demonstrative pronoun that (referring to trade deficit), again clearly indicates that the only way we can interpret this is: ...than that (trade deficit) between P and q (is).

p.s. See if you can post the actual question (of trade deficit).
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Re: Heating-oil prices are expected to be higher this year than last becau [#permalink]
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GMATNinja wrote:
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(C) Expectations are for heating-oil prices to be higher this year than last year's because refiners are paying about $5 a barrel for crude oil more than they did

(C) has a couple of problems right in the beginning of the sentence. First of all, I can’t understand why we would say “expectations are for… prices to be higher this year.” That’s a horribly indirect way to say that “prices are expected to be higher.” The prices are the focus of the sentence, and it’s best if the prices are the grammatical subject of the sentence.

The comparison is also pretty goofy. “… heating-oil prices to be higher this year than last year’s…” The problem here is the possessive “last year’s.” We could say something like “this year’s prices are higher than last year’s”, or we could say that “prices are higher this year than last year.” But it makes no sense to say that “prices are higher this year than last year’s.”

So (C) is gone.

lakshya14 wrote:
Can "last year'" can act as ellipsis for prices written? Last years'(prices), then the comparison seems fine. Although, (A) is the winner.

I assume you meant to ask, "Can 'last year's' can act as ellipsis for prices written?" (As in choice C.)

Again, it would be okay to write, "this year's prices are higher than last year's (prices)." But sticking "this year" before the "than" screws up the meaning. We have the construction, "prices are higher [time 1] than ____," and we expect to fill that blank with some other time, not some other set of prices.

If instead we say that heating-oil prices will be higher this year than last year's (heating oil prices), it sounds like we are comparing two completely distinct sets of prices: (1) heating-oil prices and (2) last year's heating oil prices -- and we are comparing those two things THIS YEAR -- as if, say, (1) heating-oil prices are $100/gallon this year while (2) last year's heating oil prices are only $75/gallon this year. Of course last year's heating oil prices do not have a price this year, so that doesn't make any sense.

And if that makes your brain explode, you're not alone: the problem is the confusing construction, not your brain. As explained here, the comparison in (A) is much clearer.

adityaganjoo wrote:
GMATNinja In (A), the comparison is between the price and the year. How is that correct?

I assume you are talking about the first part ("Heating-oil prices are expected to be higher this year than last..."). If we omit "this year," then we have a problem: "Heating-oil prices are expected to be higher this year than last [year]" - NOW it seems like we are comparing the prices and the year.

But as written, (A) compares prices at two different time frames: this year and last year. To make that a little clearer, let's simplify (A) by getting rid of the "are expected" part:

    "Prices are higher this year than last [year]..."

There's no need to write, "Prices are higher this year than [THEY WERE] last [year]..." - the words in bracket are implied by the context, and the intended meaning is clear enough.

I hope that helps!
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