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# Idioms "ending" rule?

Author Message
Manager
Joined: 15 Mar 2012
Posts: 57

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Location: United States
Concentration: Marketing, Strategy

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18 Jan 2013, 08:58
Hi gmatters!,

Today I started to study for the GMAT, and I decided to tackle SC first. I´ve seen that the GMAT likes to present a lot of questions with idiom errors. I have a question, does an idiom´s "ending" (sorry whether this term it is correct or not) has some kind of rigid rule?

For example:

agree to -> to something
agree with -> to someone/person

conclusion: if the idiom ends with "to" always anticipate something; however if it ends with "with" anticipate a person/someone.

Does this apply with every idiom? This way, it would be much easier to apply idioms, consequently, I'd increase my chances to choose the correct SC answer

MV
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MV
"Better to fight for something than live for nothing.” ― George S. Patton Jr

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Manager
Status: Helping People Ace the GMAT
Joined: 16 Jan 2013
Posts: 184

Kudos [?]: 54 [0], given: 4

Location: United States
Concentration: Finance, Entrepreneurship
GMAT 1: 770 Q50 V46
GPA: 3.1
WE: Consulting (Consulting)

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18 Jan 2013, 10:14
Idioms are tough to fit into a set of rules, hence they are idioms.

I could say I agree with the choices made today. -- this does not follow your defined rules.

Your application and description was correct, just not the universal rules.
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Kudos [?]: 54 [0], given: 4

SVP
Joined: 14 Apr 2009
Posts: 2139

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Location: New York, NY

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31 Jan 2013, 10:26
Agree to and agree with are not really the best examples to demonstrate.
Generally, idioms that use "to" are more clear on the GMAT exam.
I forbid you to jump off a cliff.
I forbid you from jumping off a cliff.

Both are okay - it's just that "to do something" is clearer than "from doing something". And you'll notice that when choosing among answer choices, the ones that have "to do something" (infinitive form) will usually end up being in the correct form for the correct answer.

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Re: Idioms "ending" rule?   [#permalink] 31 Jan 2013, 10:26
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