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If Juan had a doctor's appointment on a certain day, was the

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If Juan had a doctor's appointment on a certain day, was the appointment on a Wednesday?

(1) Exactly 60 hours before the appointment, it was Monday.

(2) The appointment was between 1:00 pm and 9:00 pm
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If Juan had a doctor's appointment on a certain day, was the appoinment on a Wedneseday?

(1) Exactly 60 hours before the appointment, it was Monday --> 60 hours = 2.5 days. Now, check some extreme cases: if 2.5 days before the appointment it was 1:00 o'clock on Monday then after 2.5 days it would be 13:00 on Wednesday but if 2.5 days before the appointment it was 13:00 o'clock on Monday then after 2.5 days it would be 1:00 on Thursday. Not sufficient.

(2) The appointment was between 1:00 pm and 9:00 pm. Clearly insufficient.

(1)+(2) The appointment could not have been on Thursday, because 2.5 days prior any time from 1:00 pm and 9:00 pm on Thursday is not Monday. So, the appointment was on Wednesday. Sufficient.

Answer: C.
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New post 05 May 2014, 14:47
Can someone please tell me how to see the full question with possible answers?

It only shows me this much...

"If Juan had a doctor's appointment on a certain day, was the appointment on a Wednesday?

(1) Exactly 60 hours before the appointment, it was Monday.

(2) The appointment was between 1:00 pm and 9:00 pm"

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Re: If Juan had a doctor's appointment on a certain day, was the [#permalink]

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New post 06 May 2014, 02:27
OceanAve wrote:
Can someone please tell me how to see the full question with possible answers?

It only shows me this much...

"If Juan had a doctor's appointment on a certain day, was the appointment on a Wednesday?

(1) Exactly 60 hours before the appointment, it was Monday.

(2) The appointment was between 1:00 pm and 9:00 pm"


This is a data sufficiency question. Options for DS questions are always the same.

The data sufficiency problem consists of a question and two statements, labeled (1) and (2), in which certain data are given. You have to decide whether the data given in the statements are sufficient for answering the question. Using the data given in the statements, plus your knowledge of mathematics and everyday facts (such as the number of days in July or the meaning of the word counterclockwise), you must indicate whether—

A. Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient to answer the question asked.
B. Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient to answer the question asked.
C. BOTH statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question asked, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient to answer the question asked.
D. EACH statement ALONE is sufficient to answer the question asked.
E. Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question asked, and additional data specific to the problem are needed.

I suggest you to go through the following post ALL YOU NEED FOR QUANT.

Hope this helps.
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Re: If Juan had a doctor's appointment on a certain day, was the [#permalink]

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New post 18 Jul 2015, 11:41
Bunuel wrote:
If Juan had a doctor's appointment on a certain day, was the appoinment on a Wedneseday?

(1) Exactly 60 hours before the appointment, it was Monday --> 60 hours = 2.5 days. Now, check some extreme cases: if 2.5 days before the appointment it was 1:00 o'clock on Monday then after 2.5 days it would be 13:00 on Wednesday but if 2.5 days before the appointment it was 13:00 o'clock on Monday then after 2.5 days it would be 1:00 on Thursday. Not sufficient.

(2) The appointment was between 1:00 pm and 9:00 pm. Clearly insufficient.

(1)+(2) The appointment could not have been on Thursday, because 2.5 days prior any time from 1:00 pm and 9:00 pm on Thursday is not Monday. So, the appointment was on Wednesday. Sufficient.

Answer: C.


Hi Bunuel,

Have a specific question with the solution.

The question stem specifically ask whether the day is Wednesday. Statement 1 mentioned that exactly 60 hours before the appointment was Monday. Hence for this particular statement don't you think one should calculate in reverse order.

If the appointment was on 9.00 pm of Wednesday, 60 hours before this time will be for sure Monday. But if the appointment on 9.00 am of Wednesday, 60 hours before this time will be for sure Sunday. However, the later part is out of scope, because statement 1 is mentions that exactly 60 hours before the appointment was Monday.

Where is my reasoning incorrect?

Thanks in advance.

Amrish

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Re: If Juan had a doctor's appointment on a certain day, was the [#permalink]

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New post 18 Jul 2015, 12:39
amrishsoni86 wrote:
Bunuel wrote:
If Juan had a doctor's appointment on a certain day, was the appoinment on a Wedneseday?

(1) Exactly 60 hours before the appointment, it was Monday --> 60 hours = 2.5 days. Now, check some extreme cases: if 2.5 days before the appointment it was 1:00 o'clock on Monday then after 2.5 days it would be 13:00 on Wednesday but if 2.5 days before the appointment it was 13:00 o'clock on Monday then after 2.5 days it would be 1:00 on Thursday. Not sufficient.

(2) The appointment was between 1:00 pm and 9:00 pm. Clearly insufficient.

(1)+(2) The appointment could not have been on Thursday, because 2.5 days prior any time from 1:00 pm and 9:00 pm on Thursday is not Monday. So, the appointment was on Wednesday. Sufficient.

Answer: C.


Hi Bunuel,

Have a specific question with the solution.

The question stem specifically ask whether the day is Wednesday. Statement 1 mentioned that exactly 60 hours before the appointment was Monday. Hence for this particular statement don't you think one should calculate in reverse order.

If the appointment was on 9.00 pm of Wednesday, 60 hours before this time will be for sure Monday. But if the appointment on 9.00 am of Wednesday, 60 hours before this time will be for sure Sunday. However, the later part is out of scope, because statement 1 is mentions that exactly 60 hours before the appointment was Monday.

Where is my reasoning incorrect?

Thanks in advance.

Amrish



Hello amrishsoni86.

If you start calculating in reverse order this is actually change nothing.
As you wrote: if appointment was on Wednesday at 9:00 am when this is contradict to information in statement 1 that 60 hours before was Monday and we can infer that appointment can't be at 9:00 am at Wednesday.

So it doesn't matter what you take as a start point extreme time points at Wednesday or extreme time points at Monday
First case (extreme points Wednesday)
13:00 Wednesday - 1 statement is true (-60 hours = 1:00 Monday) and appointment was on Wednesday
1:00 Thursday - 1 statement is true (-60 hours = 13:00 Monday) but appointment was in Thursday

Second case (extreme points Monday)
1:00 Monday - 1 statement true and appointment was on Wednesday 13:00
13:00 Monday - 1 statement true and appointment was on Thursday 1:00

Does that make sense?
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If Juan had a doctor's appointment on a certain day, was the [#permalink]

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New post 18 Jul 2015, 12:46
amrishsoni86 wrote:
Bunuel wrote:
If Juan had a doctor's appointment on a certain day, was the appoinment on a Wedneseday?

(1) Exactly 60 hours before the appointment, it was Monday --> 60 hours = 2.5 days. Now, check some extreme cases: if 2.5 days before the appointment it was 1:00 o'clock on Monday then after 2.5 days it would be 13:00 on Wednesday but if 2.5 days before the appointment it was 13:00 o'clock on Monday then after 2.5 days it would be 1:00 on Thursday. Not sufficient.

(2) The appointment was between 1:00 pm and 9:00 pm. Clearly insufficient.

(1)+(2) The appointment could not have been on Thursday, because 2.5 days prior any time from 1:00 pm and 9:00 pm on Thursday is not Monday. So, the appointment was on Wednesday. Sufficient.

Answer: C.


Hi Bunuel,

Have a specific question with the solution.

The question stem specifically ask whether the day is Wednesday. Statement 1 mentioned that exactly 60 hours before the appointment was Monday. Hence for this particular statement don't you think one should calculate in reverse order.

If the appointment was on 9.00 pm of Wednesday, 60 hours before this time will be for sure Monday. But if the appointment on 9.00 am of Wednesday, 60 hours before this time will be for sure Sunday. However, the later part is out of scope, because statement 1 is mentions that exactly 60 hours before the appointment was Monday.

Where is my reasoning incorrect?

Thanks in advance.

Amrish


IMO, you are correct that per statement 1 , the process should be looked at in reverse. For any particular day, the 24 hours start from 0000 hours to 2359 hours. So per statement 1, 60 hours before the appointment was a monday. Now lets think it this way:

For the actual appointment to be on wednesday, think of it this way:

60 hours before 2359 on Wednesday : 1159 (or 1159 AM on Monday) but 60 hours from 0000 Wednesday fall on 1200 on Sunday. Thus , this statement is not sufficient and additionally, for the appointment to be on wednesday and 60 hours being Monday , the only scenario is for the appointment to be between 1201 and 2359 hours on wednesday.

From my experience, one of the 2 statements (sometimes) throws us a hint or two about some of the cases we might have missed. For this question. statement 2 gave me the hint to think about the period from 1 pm to 9 pm in particular (though this method might not be applicable to all the questions and lead to unnecessary time wastage!).

Hope this is clear.
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Re: If Juan had a doctor's appointment on a certain day, was the [#permalink]

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New post 22 Jul 2015, 20:54
Harley1980 wrote:
amrishsoni86 wrote:
Bunuel wrote:
If Juan had a doctor's appointment on a certain day, was the appoinment on a Wedneseday?

(1) Exactly 60 hours before the appointment, it was Monday --> 60 hours = 2.5 days. Now, check some extreme cases: if 2.5 days before the appointment it was 1:00 o'clock on Monday then after 2.5 days it would be 13:00 on Wednesday but if 2.5 days before the appointment it was 13:00 o'clock on Monday then after 2.5 days it would be 1:00 on Thursday. Not sufficient.

(2) The appointment was between 1:00 pm and 9:00 pm. Clearly insufficient.

(1)+(2) The appointment could not have been on Thursday, because 2.5 days prior any time from 1:00 pm and 9:00 pm on Thursday is not Monday. So, the appointment was on Wednesday. Sufficient.

Answer: C.


Hi Bunuel,

Have a specific question with the solution.

The question stem specifically ask whether the day is Wednesday. Statement 1 mentioned that exactly 60 hours before the appointment was Monday. Hence for this particular statement don't you think one should calculate in reverse order.

If the appointment was on 9.00 pm of Wednesday, 60 hours before this time will be for sure Monday. But if the appointment on 9.00 am of Wednesday, 60 hours before this time will be for sure Sunday. However, the later part is out of scope, because statement 1 is mentions that exactly 60 hours before the appointment was Monday.

Where is my reasoning incorrect?

Thanks in advance.

Amrish



Hello amrishsoni86.

If you start calculating in reverse order this is actually change nothing.
As you wrote: if appointment was on Wednesday at 9:00 am when this is contradict to information in statement 1 that 60 hours before was Monday and we can infer that appointment can't be at 9:00 am at Wednesday.

So it doesn't matter what you take as a start point extreme time points at Wednesday or extreme time points at Monday
First case (extreme points Wednesday)
13:00 Wednesday - 1 statement is true (-60 hours = 1:00 Monday) and appointment was on Wednesday
1:00 Thursday - 1 statement is true (-60 hours = 13:00 Monday) but appointment was in Thursday

Second case (extreme points Monday)
1:00 Monday - 1 statement true and appointment was on Wednesday 13:00
13:00 Monday - 1 statement true and appointment was on Thursday 1:00

Does that make sense?


Fully agree "Harley1980". In face I was thinking about this question after I posted on the forum and realized that I missed the Thursday part. But your explanation is clarifying the confusion perfect. Thanks again for the effort. All the best. Armish

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Re: If Juan had a doctor's appointment on a certain day, was the [#permalink]

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New post 22 Jul 2015, 20:59
Engr2012 wrote:
amrishsoni86 wrote:
Bunuel wrote:
If Juan had a doctor's appointment on a certain day, was the appoinment on a Wedneseday?

(1) Exactly 60 hours before the appointment, it was Monday --> 60 hours = 2.5 days. Now, check some extreme cases: if 2.5 days before the appointment it was 1:00 o'clock on Monday then after 2.5 days it would be 13:00 on Wednesday but if 2.5 days before the appointment it was 13:00 o'clock on Monday then after 2.5 days it would be 1:00 on Thursday. Not sufficient.

(2) The appointment was between 1:00 pm and 9:00 pm. Clearly insufficient.

(1)+(2) The appointment could not have been on Thursday, because 2.5 days prior any time from 1:00 pm and 9:00 pm on Thursday is not Monday. So, the appointment was on Wednesday. Sufficient.

Answer: C.


Hi Bunuel,

Have a specific question with the solution.

The question stem specifically ask whether the day is Wednesday. Statement 1 mentioned that exactly 60 hours before the appointment was Monday. Hence for this particular statement don't you think one should calculate in reverse order.

If the appointment was on 9.00 pm of Wednesday, 60 hours before this time will be for sure Monday. But if the appointment on 9.00 am of Wednesday, 60 hours before this time will be for sure Sunday. However, the later part is out of scope, because statement 1 is mentions that exactly 60 hours before the appointment was Monday.

Where is my reasoning incorrect?

Thanks in advance.

Amrish


IMO, you are correct that per statement 1 , the process should be looked at in reverse. For any particular day, the 24 hours start from 0000 hours to 2359 hours. So per statement 1, 60 hours before the appointment was a monday. Now lets think it this way:

For the actual appointment to be on wednesday, think of it this way:

60 hours before 2359 on Wednesday : 1159 (or 1159 AM on Monday) but 60 hours from 0000 Wednesday fall on 1200 on Sunday. Thus , this statement is not sufficient and additionally, for the appointment to be on wednesday and 60 hours being Monday , the only scenario is for the appointment to be between 1201 and 2359 hours on wednesday.

From my experience, one of the 2 statements (sometimes) throws us a hint or two about some of the cases we might have missed. For this question. statement 2 gave me the hint to think about the period from 1 pm to 9 pm in particular (though this method might not be applicable to all the questions and lead to unnecessary time wastage!).

Hope this is clear.


Agree Engr2012. However, after heavily solving statement 1 when one read statement 2, one start using the information together and do not realize that statement 2 alone could have answered :(. May be a trap that I always fall to, I have to overcome this.

Anyway, thanks for your effort to explain. All the best. Amrish

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Re: If Juan had a doctor's appointment on a certain day, was the [#permalink]

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New post 03 Aug 2016, 09:48
Hello from the GMAT Club BumpBot!

Thanks to another GMAT Club member, I have just discovered this valuable topic, yet it had no discussion for over a year. I am now bumping it up - doing my job. I think you may find it valuable (esp those replies with Kudos).

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Re: If Juan had a doctor's appointment on a certain day, was the [#permalink]

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New post 28 Jun 2017, 07:36
eybrj2 wrote:
If Juan had a doctor's appointment on a certain day, was the appointment on a Wednesday?

(1) Exactly 60 hours before the appointment, it was Monday.

(2) The appointment was between 1:00 pm and 9:00 pm
each statement alone is insufficient...By considering two statement
it can be concluded that the appoint is wednesday. and 60 hours before the appointment was monday.

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Re: If Juan had a doctor's appointment on a certain day, was the   [#permalink] 28 Jun 2017, 07:36
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