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In a recent poll, 71% of respondents reported that they

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In a recent poll, 71% of respondents reported that they  [#permalink]

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New post 07 Oct 2011, 11:22
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A
B
C
D
E

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59% (00:54) correct 41% (01:16) wrong based on 922 sessions

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In a recent poll, 71% of respondents reported that they cast votes in the most recent national election. Voting records show, however, that only 60% of eligible voters actually voted in that election.

Which of the following pieces of evidence, if true, would provide the best explanation for the apparent discrepancy?

A. The margin of error for the survey was plus or minus five three percentage points.
B. Fifteen percent of the survey's respondents were living overseas at the time of the election.
C. Prior research has shown that that people who actually do vote are also more likely to respond to polls than those who do not vote.
D. Many people who intend to vote are prevented from doing so by last-minute conflicts on election day or other complications.
E. Some people confused the national election with other recent elections when responding to the poll.
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New post 07 Oct 2011, 23:05
pls help with some explanation as well..
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New post 08 Oct 2011, 20:48
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I pick C as well.

We are looking for a legitimate reason as to why the survey results are skewed to show higher percentage of voting. This can happen if the sample space (for the poll) itself is corrupted with a larger than proportionate number of people who have voted.

C says that people who have voted are more likely to join such a poll than those who have not. Settles our problem!
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Re: In a recent poll, 71% of respondents reported that they  [#permalink]

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New post 08 Oct 2011, 21:17
I pick E because this statement explains the difference between the actual number and reported number.
Can someone please post the answer?

Also can you please explain why you picked C?
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Re: Election  [#permalink]

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New post 15 Nov 2011, 18:33
71% WHO AGREED to participate in poll interview said they voted
However in fact only 60 voted
So who were asked?
C states that more likely agree those who votes in general.
So if asking from those who likely to vote the result whould be higher then if concider all (including those who likely stay home)

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New post 15 Nov 2011, 18:51
Very subtle question. Kudos to you for posting this.
Answer is C.

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Re: Election  [#permalink]

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New post 14 Dec 2011, 03:27
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Only choice C is correct, it states that the people who are eligible for voting are play 60/71% in poll. 11% remains are the ineligible people to vote election.
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In a recent poll, 71% of respondents reported that they cast  [#permalink]

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New post 16 Feb 2012, 10:01
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hareesh860 wrote:
In a recent poll, 71% of respondents reported that they cast votes in the most recent national election. Voting records show, however, that only 60% of eligible voters actually voted in that election.
Which of the following pieces of evidence, if true, would provide the best
explanation for the apparent discrepancy?

A. The margin of error for the survey was plus or minus five three percentage points.
B. Fifteen percent of the survey's respondents were living overseas at the time of the election.
C. Prior research has shown that that people who actually do vote are also more likely to respond to polls than those who do not vote.
D. Many people who intend to vote are prevented from doing so by last-minute conflicts on election day or other complications.
E. Some people confused the national election with other recent elections when responding to the poll.


When there's a discrepancy, it is always a problem of the comparability of one category to another. In this case, the sample that was polled must not have been representative of the general population. If people who did vote were more likely to answer the survey period, then that would drive the average up in the survey.
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Re: cr1  [#permalink]

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New post 19 Feb 2012, 07:56
Compare statement A with statement B does not reflect the general behaviour.

"C"
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New post 19 Feb 2012, 21:59
Only C and E are close .E can be eliminated because it has clearly mentioned that the repondents were referring to the national election only and not some other elections !!
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Re: In a recent poll, 71% of respondents reported that they  [#permalink]

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New post 25 Apr 2012, 10:19
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OA is C: according to the below link.
http://www.manhattangmat.com/forums/mgm ... t6511.html

I don't understand the logic. Whats wrong with E. At least C is not the best choice.
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Re: In a recent poll, 71% of respondents reported that they  [#permalink]

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New post 12 May 2012, 00:02
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BDSunDevil wrote:
OA is C: according to the below link.
http://www.manhattangmat.com/forums/mgm ... t6511.html

I don't understand the logic. Whats wrong with E. At least C is not the best choice.

I put the following points to say that E is wrong:
1. It talks of some peope. It is difficult to assume how many does some consist of? They can be whole or part of the sample.
2. If some people who were confused with the elections and who didn't vote, then the result of respondent could come down. But the result has gone up. It ignores this possibility.

C is correct in the following respects:
1. It talks of people who voted and participated in the vote.
2. It talks of such people as more likely to participate, instead of a vague term of some.
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Re: In a recent poll, 71% of respondents reported that they  [#permalink]

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New post 12 May 2012, 10:03
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DeeptiM wrote:
hmmm....well...a relatively simple ques but i dont seem to get why the OA is what it is...

In a recent poll, 71% of respondents reported that they cast votes in the most recent
national election. Voting records show, however, that only 60% of eligible voters actually
voted in that election.
Which of the following pieces of evidence, if true, would provide the best
explanation for the apparent discrepancy?
A. The margin of error for the survey was plus or minus five three percentage points.
B. Fifteen percent of the survey's respondents were living overseas at the time of the election.
C. Prior research has shown that that people who actually do vote are also more likely to
respond to polls than those who do not vote.
D. Many people who intend to vote are prevented from doing so by last-minute conflicts on
election day or other complications.
E. Some people confused the national election with other recent elections when responding to
the poll.




I found this explanation at manhattan forum.Please let me know if this one is correct or not.

Let me break this up....
suppose in a area 1000 ppl lived who were eligible to vote....
poll result shows 60% success... which means 600 ppl actually voted....

Now, the survey result-
71% said 'yes'.... the survey may have covered only 500 ppl or lets say the survey was responded by only 500 ppl who were excited about the election, though some of them would not have been able to vote...rest 500(including some of the ppl who actually voted) did not bother to answer the survey....

out of the 500 survey respondents, the number of ppl actually voted would be 355, rest would not have voted or were not eligible to vote...The agency which conducted the survey speculated and presented to the public that 71% voting has been done...

Hence, choice C fits the best...
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Re: In a recent poll, 71% of respondents reported that they  [#permalink]

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New post 12 May 2012, 10:37
For me the answer has to be E. Here is my explanation:
Why E: Seems like a few people voted for other election but not for the national election. But when the survey was conducted theses people got confused and falsely reported voting for national elections. Hence the percentage for survey went up.
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Re: In a recent poll, 71% of respondents reported that they cast  [#permalink]

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New post 06 Apr 2014, 05:16
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First of all thanks aalokk, for posting such a superb and tricky question.

This question is regarding how we analyze groups and sub-groups.

We were told
p1 : 71% of respondents reported that they cast votes in the most recent national election
p2: only 60% of eligible voters actually voted in that election.

We need to explain the discrpeancy
Let us take an example for this. Assume in a village there are 1000 members.

The poll surveyed 500 among them(sub -group) .From this group 71%(355 out of 500) of respondents reported that they cast votes.

Here also focus on the term eligible voters. Out of 1000 members , some are eligible and some are not eligible.

Out of 1000 members , 600 People voted .

Hope this helps :)
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New post Updated on: 21 Apr 2014, 08:20
Hi - I am having such a tough time understanding the solution to this problem. I understand why the wrong answers are wrong, but can't seems to grasp why C is the right answer. Please could anyone help break it down for me? Thank you so much ahead for your help.


In a recent poll, 71% of respondents reported that they cast votes in the most recent national election. Voting records show, however, that only 60% of eligible voters actually voted in that election.

Which of the following pieces of evidence, if true, would provide the best explanation for the discrepancy?

A. The margin of error for the survey was plus or minus five percentage points
B. Fifteen percent of the survey's respondents were living overseas at the time of the election
C. Prior research has show that people who actually do vote are also more likely to respond to poll than those who do not vote
D. Some people who intend to vote are prevented from doing so by last-minute conflicts on election day or other complications
E. People are less likely to respond to voting poll on the same day that they voted

Originally posted by SavedByNazar on 20 Apr 2014, 06:59.
Last edited by SavedByNazar on 21 Apr 2014, 08:20, edited 2 times in total.
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New post 20 Apr 2014, 08:04
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Hi SavedByNazar, Your option (C) wording is incorrect. please verify.

Difference is 11%, but it’s not actually mathematical difference. So, we can’t subtract the different in this way. Total Number of people who responded to pole (P) and Total number of eligible voters (V) are different. Pole is usually done for statistical sampling to predict the outcome. Pole and actual voting have different number of people.

71% of total respondent said, they casted vote.
But, 60% of total eligible voters actually voted.
So, this means, there were more percentage of people involved in pole response, than percentage of people who actually voted.

In Other words,
29% of total respondent said, they didn’t vast vote
But, 40% of total eligible voters didn't vote.
Out of number of people who didn’t actually cast vote (40%), few of them, didn’t think responding to pole. It means, People who voted, responded to pole more pro actively.

Above understanding helps to resolve the discrepancy.

Option wise explanation, though you understood:

A. The margin of error for the survey was plus or minus five percentage points. Total number of people in both cases is not same.This option doesn’t help to resolve the discrepancy.
B. Fifteen percent of the survey's respondents were living overseas at the time of the election. This doesn’t talk about people who voted.
C. Prior research has shown that that people who actually do vote are also more likely to respond to polls than those who do not vote. This looks more justifiable reason and more generic reason behind this discrepancy.So, correct !
D. Some people who intend to vote are prevented from doing so by last-minute conflicts on election day or other complications.This doesn’t help to distinguish the percentage of people who didn’t vote along with percentage of people who missed to respond in pole. Hence, can’t resolve discrepancy.
E. People are less likely to respond to voting poll on the same day that they voted. This doesn’t talk about people - how many and which people were less likely to respond to pole.

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New post 21 Apr 2014, 08:33
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Hi sorry - i had a type in my post. Thank you so much for the following. I still can't seem to understand why C fits the puzzle. Here's how I am thinking about it. Could you pleast let me know where I am going wrong? Thanks ahead for the help!!

In town A there are 100 people. Out of those only 60 are eligible to vote. So that would mean that 71 of the people in town A said that they would vote. And only 36 (60% of 60) actually voted. Per answer choice C, it is likely that all the 36 that voted, responded to the poll. But how does this explain the discrepancy?

umeshpatil wrote:
Hi SavedByNazar, Your option (C) wording is incorrect. please verify.

Difference is 11%, but it’s not actually mathematical difference. So, we can’t subtract the different in this way. Total Number of people who responded to pole (P) and Total number of eligible voters (V) are different. Pole is usually done for statistical sampling to predict the outcome. Pole and actual voting have different number of people.

71% of total respondent said, they casted vote.
But, 60% of total eligible voters actually voted.
So, this means, there were more percentage of people involved in pole response, than percentage of people who actually voted.

In Other words,
29% of total respondent said, they didn’t vast vote
But, 40% of total eligible voters didn't vote.
Out of number of people who didn’t actually cast vote (40%), few of them, didn’t think responding to pole. It means, People who voted, responded to pole more pro actively.

Above understanding helps to resolve the discrepancy.

Option wise explanation, though you understood:

A. The margin of error for the survey was plus or minus five percentage points. Total number of people in both cases is not same.This option doesn’t help to resolve the discrepancy.
B. Fifteen percent of the survey's respondents were living overseas at the time of the election. This doesn’t talk about people who voted.
C. Prior research has shown that that people who actually do vote are also more likely to respond to polls than those who do not vote. This looks more justifiable reason and more generic reason behind this discrepancy.So, correct !
D. Some people who intend to vote are prevented from doing so by last-minute conflicts on election day or other complications.This doesn’t help to distinguish the percentage of people who didn’t vote along with percentage of people who missed to respond in pole. Hence, can’t resolve discrepancy.
E. People are less likely to respond to voting poll on the same day that they voted. This doesn’t talk about people - how many and which people were less likely to respond to pole.

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Re: In a recent poll, 71% of respondents reported that they  [#permalink]

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New post 08 Oct 2014, 19:08
C simply becoz C indicates that there were people in the survey who said that they voted but actually could not
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Re: In a recent poll, 71% of respondents reported that they cast  [#permalink]

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New post 22 Mar 2015, 04:24
I am unable to understand what the Option C is trying to explain. Can somebody help ?


aalokk wrote:
In a recent poll, 71% of respondents reported that they cast votes in the most recent national election. Voting records show, however, that only 60% of eligible voters actually voted in that election.

Which of the following pieces of evidence, if true, would provide the best explanation for the discrepancy?

(A) The margin of error for the survey was plus or minus five percentage points.
(B) Fifteen percent of the surveys respondents were living overseas at the time of the election.
(C) Prior research has shown that people who actually do vote are also more likely to respond to polls than those who do not vote.
(D) Some people who intend to vote are prevented from doing so by last minute conflicts on election day or other complications.
(E) Polls about voting behavior typically have margins of error within plus or minus three percentage points.

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Re: In a recent poll, 71% of respondents reported that they cast &nbs [#permalink] 22 Mar 2015, 04:24

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