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In the middle Ages, philosophers were so

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Joined: 18 Jan 2017
Posts: 107

Kudos [?]: 33 [0], given: 120

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In the middle Ages, philosophers were so [#permalink]

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New post 03 Aug 2017, 08:45
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Question Stats:

87% (00:29) correct 13% (00:49) wrong based on 46 sessions

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In the Middle Ages, philosophers were so devoted to Aristotle that they neglected the evidence of their own senses and accepted whatever he wrote.

(A) were so devoted to Aristotle that they neglected
(B) were so devoted to Aristotle as to neglect
(C) were devoted to Aristotle to such a degree that they were to neglect
(D) were so devoted to Aristotle that they had to neglect
(E) were as devoted to Aristotle as to neglect


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Kudos [?]: 33 [0], given: 120

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Re: In the middle Ages, philosophers were so [#permalink]

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Inten21 wrote:
In the Middle Ages, philosophers were so devoted to Aristotle that they neglected the evidence of their own senses and accepted whatever he wrote.

(A) were so devoted to Aristotle that they neglected
(B) were so devoted to Aristotle as to neglect
(C) were devoted to Aristotle to such a degree that they were to neglect
(D) were so devoted to Aristotle that they had to neglect
(E) were as devoted to Aristotle as to neglect

Dear Inten21,

I'm happy to respond. :-)

I don't think this is a very good SC question. You can see a discussion of the idioms used here:
GMAT Idioms: Cause and Consequence
(A) is correct and is the OA
(B) is a little awkward, but still grammatically correct; not bad enough to be "incorrect"
(C) is grammatical correct but very wordy
(D) changes the meaning slightly
(E) is the only one that makes a bonafide mistake, an idiom mistake

I don't think (B) is "wrong enough" for this to be a tight question. This falls short of the high standards of the GMAT.

BTW, the question also plays a little fast and loose with facts. Plato's writings dominated philosophy & theology in the early middle ages; the introduction of Aristotle's writings, from the great Islamic civilizations, was regarded as highly suspect. It was only after the maverick Thomas Aquinas based his works on Aristotle that he began to be more accepted. By the late middle ages, the eve of the Renaissance, he was held in the esteem described in the sentence. This was a problem for Renaissance scientists, such as Galileo.

Here's a much higher quality question:
The publication of Joyce's Ulysses
BTW, chapter three of the Ulysses begins with an allusion to Aristotle.

Does all this make sense?
Mike :-)
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Mike McGarry
Magoosh Test Prep

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Kudos [?]: 8102 [1], given: 99

Re: In the middle Ages, philosophers were so   [#permalink] 04 Aug 2017, 13:32
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