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In the twentieth century, the visual arts have embarked on m

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In the twentieth century, the visual arts have embarked on  [#permalink]

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New post Updated on: 12 Dec 2013, 05:31
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In the twentieth century, the visual arts have embarked on major experimentation, from cubism to expressionism. While tastes always vary, there are certainly some people who find beautiful objects of each of the art movements of the first half of the twentieth century. In the latter half of the twentieth century, though, most works are so abstract or shocking that neither the critic nor the general public uses the word "beautiful" to describe them: indeed, sometimes late twentieth-century artists have, as one of their expressed goals, the creation of a work that no one could find beautiful. Whatever these artists are creating may be intellectually engaging at some level, but it is no longer art.

Which of the following is an assumption that supports drawing the conclusion above from the reasons given for that conclusion?

A. Art critics generally have a different appraisal of a work of art than does the general public.
B. The meaning of any work of art is defined entirely by the ideas of the artist who created it.
C. Beauty is a defining quality of art.
D. All art movements of the latter half of the twentieth century are responses to the movements of the first half of the century.
E. It is not possible for any work to be simultaneously beautiful and intellectually engaging.

Please provide explanations for your answer. Will post OA after some discussions. :-)

Originally posted by mba1382 on 11 Dec 2013, 21:29.
Last edited by mba1382 on 12 Dec 2013, 05:31, edited 1 time in total.
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In the twentieth century, the visual arts have embarked on m  [#permalink]

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New post 02 Jul 2014, 02:35
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5) In the twentieth century, the visual arts have embarked on major experimentation, from cubism to expressionism. While tastes always vary, there are certainly some people who find beautiful objects of each of the art movements of the first half of the twentieth century. In the latter half of the twentieth century, though, most works are so abstract or shocking that neither the critic nor the general public uses the word “beautiful” to describe them: indeed, sometimes late twentieth-century artists have, as one of their expressed goals, the creation of a work that no one could find beautiful. Whatever these artists are creating may be intellectually engaging at some level, but it is no longer art.

Which of the following is an assumption that supports drawing the conclusion above from the reasons given for that conclusion?

A.Art critics generally have a different appraisal of a work of art than does the general public.


B.The meaning of any work of art is defined entirely by the ideas of the artist who created it.


C.Beauty is a defining quality of art.


D.All art movements of the latter half of the twentieth century are responses to the movements of the first half of the century.


E.It is not possible for any work to be simultaneously beautiful and intellectually engaging.


HERE'S A LINK WITH VIDEO OF ANSWER EXPLANATION -MAGOOSH..!
http://gmat.magoosh.com/questions/3137# ... XZQUX.dpuf


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Re: In the twentieth century, the visual arts have embarked on  [#permalink]

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New post 12 Dec 2013, 06:19
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[quote="mba1382"]In the twentieth century, the visual arts have embarked on major experimentation, from cubism to expressionism. While tastes always vary, there are certainly some people who find beautiful objects of each of the art movements of the first half of the twentieth century. In the latter half of the twentieth century, though, most works are so abstract or shocking that neither the critic nor the general public uses the word "beautiful" to describe them: indeed, sometimes late twentieth-century artists have, as one of their expressed goals, the creation of a work that no one could find beautiful. Whatever these artists are creating may be intellectually engaging at some level, but it is no longer art.


PRETHINK-- 20th century art undergone various experimentation. 1st half is described as beautiful... some ppl were always there to find those different experimentation beautiful . However, later 20th century - people did not find beautiful even if they were intellectually engaging and regard the work as no art form.

Which of the following is an assumption that supports drawing the conclusion above from the reasons given for that conclusion?

A. Art critics generally have a different appraisal of a work of art than does the general public. well art in the later half were not considered beautiful by the critics and people alike. moreover this option doesnt address how the later 20th century art was not actually an art. Hence incorrect
B. The meaning of any work of art is defined entirely by the ideas of the artist who created it. Out Of Scope. doesnt specify the argument at hand nad in no way helps in establishihng the later 20 th century art was not an art..
C. Beauty is a defining quality of art. The author certainly establishes a relation between art and beautiful in his argument. If beauty is what defines and marks any art form and people do not find late 20th century art as beautiful, they certainly do not consider the same as art. Certainly an assumption the author is making. Correct
D. All art movements of the latter half of the twentieth century are responses to the movements of the first half of the century. OOS. no such thing have been discussed. And even if they are related, then why people have diferent views about the two halfs.. Incorrect
E. It is not possible for any work to be simultaneously beautiful and intellectually engaging. Not necessarily true. Incorrect

SO, ans is option C
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Re: In the twentieth century, the visual arts have embarked on m  [#permalink]

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New post 03 Jul 2014, 05:23
vards wrote:
5) In the twentieth century, the visual arts have embarked on major experimentation, from cubism to expressionism. While tastes always vary, there are certainly some people who find beautiful objects of each of the art movements of the first half of the twentieth century. In the latter half of the twentieth century, though, most works are so abstract or shocking that neither the critic nor the general public uses the word “beautiful” to describe them: indeed, sometimes late twentieth-century artists have, as one of their expressed goals, the creation of a work that no one could find beautiful. Whatever these artists are creating may be intellectually engaging at some level, but it is no longer art.

Which of the following is an assumption that supports drawing the conclusion above from the reasons given for that conclusion?

A.Art critics generally have a different appraisal of a work of art than does the general public.


B.The meaning of any work of art is defined entirely by the ideas of the artist who created it.


C.Beauty is a defining quality of art.


D.All art movements of the latter half of the twentieth century are responses to the movements of the first half of the century.


E.It is not possible for any work to be simultaneously beautiful and intellectually engaging.


HERE'S A LINK WITH VIDEO OF ANSWER EXPLANATION -MAGOOSH..!
http://gmat.magoosh.com/questions/3137# ... XZQUX.dpuf


Peeps..! in great need of kudos...if u could please..AND ALL THE BEST..HOPE U ALL GET IT RIGHT :-D :-D


Can someone explain why the answer is as given in OA? My answer was B which is wrong :(
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Re: In the twentieth century, the visual arts have embarked on m  [#permalink]

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New post 03 Jul 2014, 05:46
nehamodak wrote:
vards wrote:
5) In the twentieth century, the visual arts have embarked on major experimentation, from cubism to expressionism. While tastes always vary, there are certainly some people who find beautiful objects of each of the art movements of the first half of the twentieth century. In the latter half of the twentieth century, though, most works are so abstract or shocking that neither the critic nor the general public uses the word “beautiful” to describe them: indeed, sometimes late twentieth-century artists have, as one of their expressed goals, the creation of a work that no one could find beautiful. Whatever these artists are creating may be intellectually engaging at some level, but it is no longer art.

Which of the following is an assumption that supports drawing the conclusion above from the reasons given for that conclusion?

A.Art critics generally have a different appraisal of a work of art than does the general public.


B.The meaning of any work of art is defined entirely by the ideas of the artist who created it.


C.Beauty is a defining quality of art.


D.All art movements of the latter half of the twentieth century are responses to the movements of the first half of the century.


E.It is not possible for any work to be simultaneously beautiful and intellectually engaging.


HERE'S A LINK WITH VIDEO OF ANSWER EXPLANATION -MAGOOSH..!
http://gmat.magoosh.com/questions/3137# ... XZQUX.dpuf


Peeps..! in great need of kudos...if u could please..AND ALL THE BEST..HOPE U ALL GET IT RIGHT :-D :-D


Can someone explain why the answer is as given in OA? My answer was B which is wrong :(



Hello friend..!


did u check out the link attached withe the question? it has video explanation from magoosh expert..!



Hope it helps :-D
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In the twentieth century, the visual arts have embarked on m  [#permalink]

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New post 08 Jul 2014, 10:22
nehamodak wrote:
vards wrote:
5) In the twentieth century, the visual arts have embarked on major experimentation, from cubism to expressionism. While tastes always vary, there are certainly some people who find beautiful objects of each of the art movements of the first half of the twentieth century. In the latter half of the twentieth century, though, most works are so abstract or shocking that neither the critic nor the general public uses the word “beautiful” to describe them: indeed, sometimes late twentieth-century artists have, as one of their expressed goals, the creation of a work that no one could find beautiful. Whatever these artists are creating may be intellectually engaging at some level, but it is no longer art.

Which of the following is an assumption that supports drawing the conclusion above from the reasons given for that conclusion?

A.Art critics generally have a different appraisal of a work of art than does the general public.


B.The meaning of any work of art is defined entirely by the ideas of the artist who created it.


C.Beauty is a defining quality of art.


D.All art movements of the latter half of the twentieth century are responses to the movements of the first half of the century.


E.It is not possible for any work to be simultaneously beautiful and intellectually engaging.


HERE'S A LINK WITH VIDEO OF ANSWER EXPLANATION -MAGOOSH..!
http://gmat.magoosh.com/questions/3137# ... XZQUX.dpuf


Peeps..! in great need of kudos...if u could please..AND ALL THE BEST..HOPE U ALL GET IT RIGHT :-D :-D


Can someone explain why the answer is as given in OA? My answer was B which is wrong :(



Choice B is incorrect because it doesn't address the Conclusion.
The author claims that "these artists" (those of the latter half of the 20th Century) just aren't creating real art, because their works simply aren't beautiful.

The underlying assumption has to fall in between the given premises and the author's conclusion.

Choice B doesn't focus on the author's conclusion, which centers around what defines beauty in the author's perspective. Instead, it really gives us a meaning for art, in general --- Not according to the author's view.

Choice C focuses on the conclusion. The author believes that Beauty is an element that's absolutely necessary to consider, let's say a painting, real art.
If Choice C were negated: Beauty is NOT a defining quality of art...
This argument completely collapses and has no point at all.
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Re: In the twentieth century, the visual arts have embarked on  [#permalink]

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New post 07 Dec 2017, 12:05
In the twentieth century, the visual arts have embarked on major experimentation, from cubism to expressionism. While tastes always vary, there are certainly some people who find beautiful objects of each of the art movements of the first half of the twentieth century. In the latter half of the twentieth century, though, most works are so abstract or shocking that neither the critic nor the general public uses the word "beautiful" to describe them: indeed, sometimes late twentieth-century artists have, as one of their expressed goals, the creation of a work that no one could find beautiful. Whatever these artists are creating may be intellectually engaging at some level, but it is no longer art.

Which of the following is an assumption that supports drawing the conclusion above from the reasons given for that conclusion?
-If something needs to be beautiful, or potentially beautiful, to qualify as art, then this would explain that works that "no one could find beautiful" would fall outside the author's definition of art.

A. Art critics generally have a different appraisal of a work of art than does the general public. - rrelevant. Critics & the general public might have different appraisals, but what one or the other thinks does not, in and of itself, seem to determine whether something is art.
B. The meaning of any work of art is defined entirely by the ideas of the artist who created it. - is also irrelevant: who determines the meaning is a separate question from whether the work qualifies at art in the first place. (BTW, exceedingly few modern critics would accept the interpretive idea contained in choice .)
C. Beauty is a defining quality of art. - Correct
D. All art movements of the latter half of the twentieth century are responses to the movements of the first half of the century. - is undeniably true, but not relevant: again: it provides no standard by which we could say the former objects are art and the latter objects aren’t.
E. It is not possible for any work to be simultaneously beautiful and intellectually engaging. - is a far-flung idea, unrelated to the discussion. The passage doesn't address the issue of whether any works of art are intellectually engaging


Answer C
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Re: In the twentieth century, the visual arts have embarked on m  [#permalink]

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New post 17 Jul 2018, 18:57

Official Explanation


The argument makes a number of factual statements. Art in the first half of the 20th century are, or could be considered, beautiful. Works by artists in the latter half of the 20th century are not supposed to be beautiful, and even, are supposed to be devoid of beauty. Then the argument draws a bold powerful conclusion: therefore, they are not art! The assumption seems to be something that links beauty to whether something qualifies as art. We definitely need an answer to speak to the question: what does, or doesn't, qualify as art?

(C) is credited answer. If something needs to be beautiful, or potentially beautiful, to qualify as art, then this would explain that works that "no one could find beautiful" would fall outside the author's definition of art.

The other answers are all quite tempting, because we could imagine an art professor or someone in an art class arguing for any one of them.

(A) is irrelevant. Critics & the general public might have different appraisals, but what one or the other thinks does not, in and of itself, seem to determine whether something is art.

(B) is also irrelevant: who determines the meaning is a separate question from whether the work qualifies at art in the first place. (BTW, exceedingly few modern critics would accept the interpretive idea contained in choice .)

(D) is undeniably true, but not relevant: again: it provides no standard by which we could say the former objects are art and the latter objects aren’t.

(E) is a far-flung idea, unrelated to the discussion. The passage doesn't address the issue of whether any works of art are intellectually engaging.
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Re: In the twentieth century, the visual arts have embarked on m &nbs [#permalink] 17 Jul 2018, 18:57
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