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In World War I, only about 46 percent of the deaths suffered by the U

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In World War I, only about 46 percent of the deaths suffered by the U  [#permalink]

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New post 29 Jul 2018, 15:39
1
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A
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C
D
E

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65% (01:51) correct 35% (01:29) wrong based on 60 sessions

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In World War I, only about 46 percent of the deaths suffered by the United States Armed Services were classified as battle deaths, that is, as directly caused by enemy action. The remaining deaths suffered by the United States Armed Services were classified as due to other factors, mainly disease. In World War II, 72 percent of the deaths suffered by the United States Armed Services were classified as battle deaths.

Which of the following, if true, best helps to explain the change in the percentage of battle deaths experienced by the United States Armed Services in World Wars I and II?

A) The United States was fighting only one major enemy in World War I, but two major enemies in World War II.
B) Compared to World War I, a greater percentage of deaths in World War II were battle deaths for the combined total of all armed services involved in each war.
C) The widespread use of chemical weapons in World War I resulted in many battle deaths that were not caused directly by gunfire or explosives.
D) There were more deaths in the United States as a result of disease in World War I than in World War II.
E) Technological advances after World War I improved the ability of all armed services to reduce the lethality of disease and infection in World War II.

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In World War I, only about 46 percent of the deaths suffered by the U  [#permalink]

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New post 29 Jul 2018, 17:16
Between C & E

Take E first.
battle death disease or other death
WWI 46% 54%
WWII 72% 24%
This decrease in disease death is because of technological advancement after WWI.

Now C,
Widespread use of chemical weapons in WWI caused more battle death that were not caused by gun or explosives.

E is close to stimuli.

Answer seems E.
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Re: In World War I, only about 46 percent of the deaths suffered by the U  [#permalink]

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New post 30 Jul 2018, 00:02
The answer is E.

We are looking for a reason that would either explain why more people would die in war but not from battle in WWI, or in war from battle and not other reasons in WWII, so something that made disease (probably) worse in WWI or battle more deadly in WWII. (E) gives us the first option: disease was not as deadly in WWII as it was in WWI.

Eliminating the other answers:
A) The United States was fighting only one major enemy in World War I, but two major enemies in World War II. irrelevant - this could explain more deaths in total, not a greater percentage of battle deaths
B) Compared to World War I, a greater percentage of deaths in World War II were battle deaths for the combined total of all armed services involved in each war. this just means the phenomenon was widespread... but gives no reason why
C) The widespread use of chemical weapons in World War I resulted in many battle deaths that were not caused directly by gunfire or explosives. death by chemical weapon is still a battle death - this is no help
D) There were more deaths in the United States as a result of disease in World War I than in World War II. if this detail were about the US army, it may have helped - but what happened back in the US is not all that relevant to understanding what happened to US soldiers fighting in Europe
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Re: In World War I, only about 46 percent of the deaths suffered by the U &nbs [#permalink] 30 Jul 2018, 00:02
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