Check GMAT Club Decision Tracker for the Latest School Decision Releases https://gmatclub.com/AppTrack

 It is currently 24 May 2017, 09:09

# Live Now:

### GMAT Club Daily Prep

#### Thank you for using the timer - this advanced tool can estimate your performance and suggest more practice questions. We have subscribed you to Daily Prep Questions via email.

Customized
for You

we will pick new questions that match your level based on your Timer History

Track

every week, we’ll send you an estimated GMAT score based on your performance

Practice
Pays

we will pick new questions that match your level based on your Timer History

# Events & Promotions

###### Events & Promotions in June
Open Detailed Calendar

# Inequality problem

Author Message
GMAT Club Legend
Joined: 07 Jul 2004
Posts: 5045
Location: Singapore
Followers: 31

Kudos [?]: 376 [0], given: 0

### Show Tags

22 Aug 2004, 00:45
This topic is locked. If you want to discuss this question please re-post it in the respective forum.

Hi,
This question is from the OG. It's question 299 from the quantitative section. I don't quite agree with the OA, so I'm posting it here to see what you guys think.

OG Q299) If d > 0, and 0< 1-c/d < 1, which of the following must be true?

I. c > 0
II. c/d < 1
III. c^2 + d^2 > 1

A) I only
B) II only
C) I and II only
D) II and III only
E) I, II and III

My answer is I only (A), which the OA says is wrong. I won't reveal the OA just yet, and have some discussion about II and III with you guys.
GMAT Instructor
Joined: 07 Jul 2003
Posts: 770
Location: New York NY 10024
Schools: Haas, MFE; Anderson, MBA; USC, MSEE
Followers: 26

Kudos [?]: 212 [0], given: 0

### Show Tags

22 Aug 2004, 01:58
OOPS, the following is wrong, please ignore (edited)

/************************************************************
Okay we know d > 0. Let's restate the next equation by subtracting 1 from all 3 expressions (this does not effect the inequality). Hence,

-1 < c/d < 0.

This means c/d must be < 0 and II is true.

Since c/d is a fraction < 0 and we know d > 0, c must be < 0. Hence I must be true.

Finally, while we know something about the ratio of c to d, we cannot limit the absolute values of c and d. If c = -1000 and d = 2000 then III is true, but is c = -.00001 and d = .00002, then III is not. Hence, only I and II must be true and the answer is C.
*********************************************************/
_________________

Best,

AkamaiBrah
Former Senior Instructor, Manhattan GMAT and VeritasPrep
Vice President, Midtown NYC Investment Bank, Structured Finance IT
MFE, Haas School of Business, UC Berkeley, Class of 2005
MBA, Anderson School of Management, UCLA, Class of 1993

Last edited by AkamaiBrah on 22 Aug 2004, 08:58, edited 1 time in total.
GMAT Club Legend
Joined: 07 Jul 2004
Posts: 5045
Location: Singapore
Followers: 31

Kudos [?]: 376 [0], given: 0

### Show Tags

22 Aug 2004, 03:54
OG Q299) If d > 0, and 0< 1-c/d < 1, which of the following must be true?

By rewriting the equation 0 < 1-c/d < 1, this is what I got:

-1 < -c/d < 0
0 < c/d < 1

So since we are given d > 0, for c/d < 1 and c/d > 0, we know c must be positive as well. So I is correct.

But II is suspect, c/d < 1 is okay, but it can mean c/d can get become a negative number and so won't satisfy the left hand side of the inequality, whic is c/d > 0. So that's why I ruled II out. What do you think?
Anything wrong with this reasoning ?
GMAT Instructor
Joined: 07 Jul 2003
Posts: 770
Location: New York NY 10024
Schools: Haas, MFE; Anderson, MBA; USC, MSEE
Followers: 26

Kudos [?]: 212 [0], given: 0

### Show Tags

22 Aug 2004, 08:57
ywilfred wrote:
OG Q299) If d > 0, and 0< 1-c/d < 1, which of the following must be true?

By rewriting the equation 0 < 1-c/d < 1, this is what I got:

-1 < -c/d < 0
0 < c/d < 1

So since we are given d > 0, for c/d < 1 and c/d > 0, we know c must be positive as well. So I is correct.

But II is suspect, c/d < 1 is okay, but it can mean c/d can get become a negative number and so won't satisfy the left hand side of the inequality, whic is c/d > 0. So that's why I ruled II out. What do you think?
Anything wrong with this reasoning ?

Oops. Forget what I said in previous post (it was 4am on a Saturday after playing poker and drinking beer).

You are right that the statement mean 0 < c/d < 1. Since we are GIVEN than 0 < 1-c/d < 1, then it is also GIVEN that 0 < c/d < 1. Hence, II is true. The stuff about III still holds true, but take out the negative sign.
_________________

Best,

AkamaiBrah
Former Senior Instructor, Manhattan GMAT and VeritasPrep
Vice President, Midtown NYC Investment Bank, Structured Finance IT
MFE, Haas School of Business, UC Berkeley, Class of 2005
MBA, Anderson School of Management, UCLA, Class of 1993

22 Aug 2004, 08:57
Display posts from previous: Sort by