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# Is 1/(a-b)<b-a? 1. a<b 2. 1< la-bl

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Retired Moderator
Joined: 05 Jul 2006
Posts: 1749

Kudos [?]: 442 [0], given: 49

Is 1/(a-b)<b-a? 1. a<b 2. 1< la-bl [#permalink]

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10 Aug 2009, 10:56
00:00

Difficulty:

(N/A)

Question Stats:

50% (01:19) correct 50% (01:06) wrong based on 7 sessions

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Is 1/(a-b)<b-a?

1. a<b
2. 1< la-bl

Kudos [?]: 442 [0], given: 49

Current Student
Joined: 13 Jan 2009
Posts: 364

Kudos [?]: 144 [0], given: 1

Location: India

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10 Aug 2009, 14:07
I feel A.

If b>a then b-a will be positive and 1/-ve will be negative so A is suff.

While on the other hand 1<la-bl is (-infi, -1) U(1, infi) this will give mixed results so A is sufficient.

Kudos [?]: 144 [0], given: 1

Intern
Joined: 13 Aug 2008
Posts: 9

Kudos [?]: [0], given: 0

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10 Aug 2009, 14:47
this is a situation similar to (1/(-x)) < x.

This can only b true if x>0..

Here, x = b-a

so, b-a> 0
or b>a

Kudos [?]: [0], given: 0

Manager
Joined: 10 Jul 2009
Posts: 125

Kudos [?]: 187 [0], given: 60

Location: Ukraine, Kyiv

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10 Sep 2009, 09:21
As far as I understood, the second answer choice has absolute value in it, right?
If so, then A for me. Please,yezz, post an OA.
_________________

Never, never, never give up

Kudos [?]: 187 [0], given: 60

Senior Manager
Joined: 16 Apr 2009
Posts: 317

Kudos [?]: 157 [0], given: 14

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10 Sep 2009, 16:19
A is sufficient to answer , B will give mixed results
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Kudos [?]: 157 [0], given: 14

Re: good inquality ds   [#permalink] 10 Sep 2009, 16:19
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