Last visit was: 24 Apr 2024, 16:56 It is currently 24 Apr 2024, 16:56

Close
GMAT Club Daily Prep
Thank you for using the timer - this advanced tool can estimate your performance and suggest more practice questions. We have subscribed you to Daily Prep Questions via email.

Customized
for You

we will pick new questions that match your level based on your Timer History

Track
Your Progress

every week, we’ll send you an estimated GMAT score based on your performance

Practice
Pays

we will pick new questions that match your level based on your Timer History
Not interested in getting valuable practice questions and articles delivered to your email? No problem, unsubscribe here.
Close
Request Expert Reply
Confirm Cancel
SORT BY:
Date
Tags:
Show Tags
Hide Tags
avatar
Intern
Intern
Joined: 24 May 2013
Posts: 15
Own Kudos [?]: 120 [22]
Given Kudos: 50
Location: United Kingdom
WE:Project Management (Real Estate)
Send PM
Most Helpful Reply
User avatar
Director
Director
Joined: 02 Sep 2012
Status:Far, far away!
Posts: 859
Own Kudos [?]: 4891 [15]
Given Kudos: 219
Location: Italy
Concentration: Finance, Entrepreneurship
GPA: 3.8
Send PM
Tutor
Joined: 16 Oct 2010
Posts: 14817
Own Kudos [?]: 64901 [8]
Given Kudos: 426
Location: Pune, India
Send PM
General Discussion
avatar
Intern
Intern
Joined: 01 Jan 2012
Posts: 2
Own Kudos [?]: 8 [3]
Given Kudos: 0
Location: United States
WE:Information Technology (Investment Banking)
Send PM
Re: Is p^2q > pq^2? (1) pq < 0 (2) p < 0 [#permalink]
2
Kudos
1
Bookmarks
Rephrase the question as:

p * p * q > p * q * q

This simplifies to

is p > q ?

I) only tells us that p & q have opposite signage
II) specifically tells us p < 0 , but tells us nothing about q

using I & II:

we know that p < 0 and p&q have opp signage, so q must be > 0 and so p<q
This is sufficient, so the right answer is C
Retired Moderator
Joined: 23 Jul 2010
Posts: 404
Own Kudos [?]: 1833 [0]
Given Kudos: 370
GPA: 3.5
WE:Business Development (Health Care)
Send PM
Re: Is p^2q > pq^2? (1) pq < 0 (2) p < 0 [#permalink]
VeritasPrepKarishma wrote:
labheshr wrote:
Rephrase the question as:

p * p * q > p * q * q

This simplifies to

is p > q ?

I) only tells us that p & q have opposite signage
II) specifically tells us p < 0 , but tells us nothing about q

using I & II:

we know that p < 0 and p&q have opp signage, so q must be > 0 and so p<q
This is sufficient, so the right answer is C


There is a problem in this approach.

'Is \(p^2q > pq^2\)?' does not get simplified to 'Is \(p > q\)?'

You cannot reduce the expression by p and q without knowing the signs of p and q. If a variable is negative, the inequality sign flips when you divide both sides by it.
Note Zarrolou's method above: Is \(pq( p - q) > 0?\)
This is how you should proceed.

The final answer was not compromised here because it is a DS question. Since you know that pq < 0, actually the question is now 'Is p < q?' so whether you answer with yes or no, it doesn't matter in DS as long as you have a clear cut answer. But in some other question, this distinction could be the difference between the correct and incorrect answer.


From st. 1&2 we know that pq < 0 & p < 0 therefore q>0 and p<q
but what if : p= -1/2 & q is 1/4 then we have p^ 2q =(-1/2) ^1/2 (square root of a negative number) & pq^2 = -1/2 *1/16= -1/32 , how do we decide?
Math Expert
Joined: 02 Sep 2009
Posts: 92900
Own Kudos [?]: 618811 [0]
Given Kudos: 81588
Send PM
Re: Is p^2q > pq^2? (1) pq < 0 (2) p < 0 [#permalink]
Expert Reply
dentobizz wrote:
VeritasPrepKarishma wrote:
labheshr wrote:
Rephrase the question as:

p * p * q > p * q * q

This simplifies to

is p > q ?

I) only tells us that p & q have opposite signage
II) specifically tells us p < 0 , but tells us nothing about q

using I & II:

we know that p < 0 and p&q have opp signage, so q must be > 0 and so p<q
This is sufficient, so the right answer is C


There is a problem in this approach.

'Is \(p^2q > pq^2\)?' does not get simplified to 'Is \(p > q\)?'

You cannot reduce the expression by p and q without knowing the signs of p and q. If a variable is negative, the inequality sign flips when you divide both sides by it.
Note Zarrolou's method above: Is \(pq( p - q) > 0?\)
This is how you should proceed.

The final answer was not compromised here because it is a DS question. Since you know that pq < 0, actually the question is now 'Is p < q?' so whether you answer with yes or no, it doesn't matter in DS as long as you have a clear cut answer. But in some other question, this distinction could be the difference between the correct and incorrect answer.


From st. 1&2 we know that pq < 0 & p < 0 therefore q>0 and p<q
but what if : p= -1/2 & q is 1/4 then we have p^ 2q =(-1/2) ^1/2 (square root of a negative number) & pq^2 = -1/2 *1/16= -1/32 , how do we decide?


If \(p=-\frac{1}{2}\) and \(q=\frac{1}{4}\), then \(p^2q=\frac{1}{16} >-\frac{1}{32}=pq^2\)

Is p^2q > pq^2?

The question asks whether \(pq(p-q) >0\).

(1) pq < 0. The question becomes whether \(p-q<0\) or whether \(p<q\). We don't know that. Not sufficient.

(2) p < 0. Clearly insufficient.

(1)+(2) Since from (2) \(p < 0\), then from (1) we'd have that \(q>0\), thus \(p=negative<q=positive\). Sufficient.

Answer: C.
User avatar
Intern
Intern
Joined: 22 Mar 2013
Posts: 13
Own Kudos [?]: 18 [1]
Given Kudos: 6
Concentration: Operations, Entrepreneurship
GMAT 1: 620 Q47 V28
GMAT 2: 680 Q45 V38
WE:Engineering (Manufacturing)
Send PM
Re: Is p^2q > pq^2? (1) pq < 0 (2) p < 0 [#permalink]
1
Bookmarks
Is p^2q > pq^2?

(1) pq < 0
(2) p < 0

Here is my method for this one:
1). p x q < 0. This means, we have two cases. Either p<0 & q>0 or q<0 & p>0. Going ahead with the first case. Is (-ve)^2 x (+ve) > (-ve) x (+ve)^2 ? --> +ve x +ve > -Ve. So YES. Going ahead with second case. Is (+ve)^2 x (-ve) > (+ve) x (-ve)^2 ? --> -ve > +Ve. This cannot be true. We get two answers. Insufficient.

2). p < 0. This doesnt tell us anything about q. Insufficient.

Together => We identified two cases from statement 1. Considering statement 2, We can only use the first case from statement 1. So, YES. Sufficient.
avatar
Intern
Intern
Joined: 10 Apr 2012
Posts: 15
Own Kudos [?]: 119 [4]
Given Kudos: 0
Concentration: Finance, Economics
GMAT 1: 760 Q50 V44
Send PM
Re: Is p^2q > pq^2? (1) pq < 0 (2) p < 0 [#permalink]
3
Kudos
1
Bookmarks
Alternate Soln
Attachments

If you lack concept clarity.jpg
If you lack concept clarity.jpg [ 81.65 KiB | Viewed 18731 times ]

If you lack concept clarity.jpg
If you lack concept clarity.jpg [ 81.65 KiB | Viewed 18903 times ]

Intern
Intern
Joined: 06 Aug 2013
Posts: 46
Own Kudos [?]: 14 [0]
Given Kudos: 17
Send PM
Re: Is p^2q > pq^2? (1) pq < 0 (2) p < 0 [#permalink]
VeritasPrepKarishma wrote:
labheshr wrote:
Rephrase the question as:

p * p * q > p * q * q

This simplifies to

is p > q ?

I) only tells us that p & q have opposite signage
II) specifically tells us p < 0 , but tells us nothing about q

using I & II:

we know that p < 0 and p&q have opp signage, so q must be > 0 and so p<q
This is sufficient, so the right answer is C


There is a problem in this approach.

'Is \(p^2q > pq^2\)?' does not get simplified to 'Is \(p > q\)?'

You cannot reduce the expression by p and q without knowing the signs of p and q. If a variable is negative, the inequality sign flips when you divide both sides by it.
Note Zarrolou's method above: Is \(pq( p - q) > 0?\)
This is how you should proceed.

The final answer was not compromised here because it is a DS question. Since you know that pq < 0, actually the question is now 'Is p < q?' so whether you answer with yes or no, it doesn't matter in DS as long as you have a clear cut answer. But in some other question, this distinction could be the difference between the correct and incorrect answer.

hi karishma,

i wanted a clarification here

p^2 .q > p. q ^2
now p^2 > 0 always and so is q^2 > 0
hence, the question boils down to

q > p ??
is this approach correct ??
Tutor
Joined: 16 Oct 2010
Posts: 14817
Own Kudos [?]: 64901 [0]
Given Kudos: 426
Location: Pune, India
Send PM
Re: Is p^2q > pq^2? (1) pq < 0 (2) p < 0 [#permalink]
Expert Reply
arnabs wrote:
hi karishma,

i wanted a clarification here

p^2 .q > p. q ^2
now p^2 > 0 always and so is q^2 > 0
hence, the question boils down to

q > p ??
is this approach correct ??



Is \(p^2 .q > p. q ^2\)?
does not reduce to 'Is \(q >p\)?'

Note that we could have ignored \(p^2\) and \(q^2\) had we known that they are both equal in magnitude and non zero.

Say, if you divide the inequality by \(q^2\) (assuming q is not 0), you get

Is \(\frac{p^2}{q^2} * q > p\)?

Is this the same as 'Is \(q>p\)?'

No, to make this same, we are assuming that \(\frac{p^2}{q^2} = 1\).
Intern
Intern
Joined: 17 Aug 2016
Posts: 39
Own Kudos [?]: 13 [0]
Given Kudos: 81
Send PM
Re: Is p^2q > pq^2? (1) pq < 0 (2) p < 0 [#permalink]
Bunuel wrote:


The question asks whether \(pq(p-q) >0\).

(1) pq < 0. The question becomes whether \(p-q<0\) or whether \(p<q\). We don't know that. Not sufficient.

(2) p < 0. Clearly insufficient.

(1)+(2) Since from (2) \(p < 0\), then from (1) we'd have that \(q>0\), thus \(p=negative<q=positive\). Sufficient.

Answer: C.


Hi Bunuel - I have a fundamental problem when reading these kind of questions, I never get what the questions is i.e. p^2q means (p^2)q or p^(2q)? Since parenthesis are rarely used, is there a convention in the Gmat exam? Thanks
Math Expert
Joined: 02 Sep 2009
Posts: 92900
Own Kudos [?]: 618811 [1]
Given Kudos: 81588
Send PM
Re: Is p^2q > pq^2? (1) pq < 0 (2) p < 0 [#permalink]
1
Kudos
Expert Reply
bazu wrote:
Bunuel wrote:


The question asks whether \(pq(p-q) >0\).

(1) pq < 0. The question becomes whether \(p-q<0\) or whether \(p<q\). We don't know that. Not sufficient.

(2) p < 0. Clearly insufficient.

(1)+(2) Since from (2) \(p < 0\), then from (1) we'd have that \(q>0\), thus \(p=negative<q=positive\). Sufficient.

Answer: C.


Hi Bunuel - I have a fundamental problem when reading these kind of questions, I never get what the questions is i.e. p^2q means (p^2)q or p^(2q)? Since parenthesis are rarely used, is there a convention in the Gmat exam? Thanks


Good news is that on the exam you'll see formulas so you won't be confused.

To answer your question p^2q ALWAYS means p^2*q if it were p^(2q) it would be written that way.
Math Revolution GMAT Instructor
Joined: 16 Aug 2015
Posts: 10161
Own Kudos [?]: 16594 [1]
Given Kudos: 4
GMAT 1: 760 Q51 V42
GPA: 3.82
Send PM
Re: Is p^2q > pq^2? (1) pq < 0 (2) p < 0 [#permalink]
1
Kudos
Expert Reply
Manhnip wrote:
Is p^2q > pq^2?

(1) pq < 0
(2) p < 0

got confused in C & E

and guessed C

Please explain how to eliminate this doubt, as I always get wrong in these two options.


Forget conventional ways of solving math questions. For DS problems, the VA (Variable Approach) method is the quickest and easiest way to find the answer without actually solving the problem. Remember that equal numbers of variables and independent equations ensure a solution.

The first step of the VA (Variable Approach) method is to modify the original condition and the question, and then recheck the question.

\(p^2q > pq^2\)
\(⇔ p^2q - pq^2 > 0\)
\(⇔ pq(p-q) > 0\)

Since we have 2 variables (p and a) and 0 equations,C is most likely to be the answer. So, we should consider 1) & 2) first.

Condition 1) & 2):
Since \(pq < 0\) and \(p < 0\), we have \(q > 0\).
\(p - q < 0\) since \(p < 0 < q\) or \(p < q\).
Thus pq(p-q) > 0 since p < 0, q > 0 and p - q < 0.
Both conditions together 1) & 2) are sufficient.

Since this is an inequality question (one of the key question areas), we should also consider choices A and B by CMT(Common Mistake Type) 4(A).

Condition 1)
We don't know that \(p - q\) is positive or negative from the condition 1) only.
The condition 1) is not sufficient.

Condition 2)
We don't have any information about \(q\) from the condition 2)
The condition 2) is not sufficient.

Therefore, the answer is C.

Normally, in problems which require 2 equations, such as those in which the original conditions include 2 variables, or 3 variables and 1 equation, or 4 variables and 2 equations, each of conditions 1) and 2) provide an additional equation. In these problems, the two key possibilities are that C is the answer (with probability 70%), and E is the answer (with probability 25%). Thus, there is only a 5% chance that A, B or D is the answer. This occurs in common mistake types 3 and 4. Since C (both conditions together are sufficient) is the most likely answer, we save time by first checking whether conditions 1) and 2) are sufficient, when taken together. Obviously, there may be cases in which the answer is A, B, D or E, but if conditions 1) and 2) are NOT sufficient when taken together, the answer must be E.
Intern
Intern
Joined: 16 Jul 2018
Posts: 36
Own Kudos [?]: 14 [0]
Given Kudos: 6
Location: United States
GMAT 1: 700 Q48 V38
GMAT 2: 680 Q47 V36
GMAT 3: 760 Q50 V44
Send PM
Re: Is p^2q > pq^2? (1) pq < 0 (2) p < 0 [#permalink]
VeritasKarishma wrote:
arnabs wrote:
hi karishma,

i wanted a clarification here

p^2 .q > p. q ^2
now p^2 > 0 always and so is q^2 > 0
hence, the question boils down to

q > p ??
is this approach correct ??



Is \(p^2 .q > p. q ^2\)?
does not reduce to 'Is \(q >p\)?'

Note that we could have ignored \(p^2\) and \(q^2\) had we known that they are both equal in magnitude and non zero.

Say, if you divide the inequality by \(q^2\) (assuming q is not 0), you get

Is \(\frac{p^2}{q^2} * q > p\)?

Is this the same as 'Is \(q>p\)?'

No, to make this same, we are assuming that \(\frac{p^2}{q^2} = 1\).


Couldn't you further reduce this? You stopped before reaching where arnabs got to.

\(p^2 *q > p* q ^2\)

\(=\frac{q}{q^2} * p^2 > p\)

\(=\frac{q}{q^2} > \frac{p}{p^2}\)

\(=\frac{1}{q} > \frac{1}{p}\)

\(=q > p\)

Since P^2 and Q^2 are squares, you know they are positive. You can raise each side to the -1 to get the variables out of the denominator.

Could you let us know if you disagree with this approach?

Thanks
Math Revolution GMAT Instructor
Joined: 16 Aug 2015
Posts: 10161
Own Kudos [?]: 16594 [0]
Given Kudos: 4
GMAT 1: 760 Q51 V42
GPA: 3.82
Send PM
Re: Is p^2q > pq^2? (1) pq < 0 (2) p < 0 [#permalink]
Expert Reply
Manhnip wrote:
Is p^2q > pq^2?

(1) pq < 0
(2) p < 0

got confused in C & E

and guessed C

Please explain how to eliminate this doubt, as I always get wrong in these two options.


Forget conventional ways of solving math questions. For DS problems, the VA (Variable Approach) method is the quickest and easiest way to find the answer without actually solving the problem. Remember that equal numbers of variables and independent equations ensure a solution.
Visit https://www.mathrevolution.com/gmat/lesson for details.

The first step of the VA (Variable Approach) method is to modify the original condition and the question. We then recheck the question. We should simplify conditions if necessary.

\(p^2q > pq^2\)
\(⇔ p^2q - pq^2 > 0\)
\(⇔ pq(p-q) >0\)

Since we have 2 variables (x and y) and 0 equations, C is most likely to be the answer. So, we should consider conditions 1) & 2) together first. After comparing the number of variables and the number of equations, we can save time by considering conditions 1) & 2) together first.

Conditions 1) & 2)
Since \(pq < 0\) and \(p < 0\), we have \(q > 0\) and \(p-q < 0\).
Then \(pq(p-q) > 0\) and we have a unique answer "yes".
Thus both conditions together are sufficient.

Obviously, each of conditions is not sufficient alone.

Therefore, C is the answer.

Normally, in problems which require 2 equations, such as those in which the original conditions include 2 variables, or 3 variables and 1 equation, or 4 variables and 2 equations, each of conditions 1) and 2) provide an additional equation. In these problems, the two key possibilities are that C is the answer (with probability 70%), and E is the answer (with probability 25%). Thus, there is only a 5% chance that A, B or D is the answer. This occurs in common mistake types 3 and 4. Since C (both conditions together are sufficient) is the most likely answer, we save time by first checking whether conditions 1) and 2) are sufficient, when taken together. Obviously, there may be cases in which the answer is A, B, D or E, but if conditions 1) and 2) are NOT sufficient when taken together, the answer must be E.
Tutor
Joined: 17 Sep 2014
Posts: 1251
Own Kudos [?]: 938 [0]
Given Kudos: 6
Location: United States
GMAT 1: 780 Q51 V45
GRE 1: Q170 V167
Send PM
Re: Is p^2q > pq^2? (1) pq < 0 (2) p < 0 [#permalink]
Expert Reply
We cannot simplify this statement as we cannot tell if p or q are positive, we shall proceed with the original question.

(1) This tells us p and q have opposite signs. If q were positive then q > p, and we would have \(p^2q > q^2p\) due to positive > negative. The reverse is true if p were positive instead. Therefore insufficient.
(2) Let p = -1 for convenience, then with q = 1 the answer to the question is “yes” but with q = -1 the answer would be “no”. Insufficient.
(3) Combining the information we are stuck with the q > p case. Then the inequality is always positive > negative, sufficient.
User avatar
Non-Human User
Joined: 09 Sep 2013
Posts: 32655
Own Kudos [?]: 821 [0]
Given Kudos: 0
Send PM
Re: Is p^2q > pq^2? (1) pq < 0 (2) p < 0 [#permalink]
Hello from the GMAT Club BumpBot!

Thanks to another GMAT Club member, I have just discovered this valuable topic, yet it had no discussion for over a year. I am now bumping it up - doing my job. I think you may find it valuable (esp those replies with Kudos).

Want to see all other topics I dig out? Follow me (click follow button on profile). You will receive a summary of all topics I bump in your profile area as well as via email.
GMAT Club Bot
Re: Is p^2q > pq^2? (1) pq < 0 (2) p < 0 [#permalink]
Moderator:
Math Expert
92900 posts

Powered by phpBB © phpBB Group | Emoji artwork provided by EmojiOne