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# Is p/m>0? 1) p>m 2) pm>0.

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Math Revolution GMAT Instructor
Joined: 16 Aug 2015
Posts: 7363
GMAT 1: 760 Q51 V42
GPA: 3.82
Is p/m>0? 1) p>m 2) pm>0.  [#permalink]

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02 Aug 2017, 00:56
00:00

Difficulty:

35% (medium)

Question Stats:

70% (00:47) correct 30% (00:40) wrong based on 48 sessions

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Is p/m>0?

1) p>m
2) pm>0.

_________________
MathRevolution: Finish GMAT Quant Section with 10 minutes to spare
The one-and-only World’s First Variable Approach for DS and IVY Approach for PS with ease, speed and accuracy.
"Only $149 for 3 month Online Course" "Free Resources-30 day online access & Diagnostic Test" "Unlimited Access to over 120 free video lessons - try it yourself" Math Expert Joined: 02 Aug 2009 Posts: 7684 Re: Is p/m>0? 1) p>m 2) pm>0. [#permalink] ### Show Tags 02 Aug 2017, 02:46 MathRevolution wrote: Is p/m>0? 1) p>m 2) pm>0. $$\frac{p}{m}>0$$.. it is possible ONLY when both p and m are of SAME sign lets see the statements 1) p>m if p = 2, m= 3.. yes if p= -2, m=3...no insuff 2) pm>0 here it tells us that both p and m are of SAMR sign.. hence suff B _________________ Director Joined: 04 Dec 2015 Posts: 750 Location: India Concentration: Technology, Strategy WE: Information Technology (Consulting) Re: Is p/m>0? 1) p>m 2) pm>0. [#permalink] ### Show Tags 02 Aug 2017, 02:58 MathRevolution wrote: Is p/m>0? 1) p>m 2) pm>0. $$\frac{p}{m}>0$$ Only when $$p$$ and $$m$$ both are positive or both are negative (ie; $$p$$ and $$m$$ both should have same sign), $$\frac{p}{m}$$ will be greater than $$0$$. 1) $$p>m$$ We cannot find the sign of $$p$$ or $$m$$. Hence I is Not Sufficient. 2) $$pm>0$$ $$pm$$ is greater than $$0$$, that is; $$p$$ and $$m$$ both are positive or both are negative (ie; $$p$$ and $$m$$ both have same sign). Hence II is Sufficient. Answer (B)... Intern Joined: 15 Oct 2016 Posts: 29 Is p/m>0? 1) p>m 2) pm>0. [#permalink] ### Show Tags 02 Aug 2017, 04:48 MathRevolution wrote: Is p/m>0? 1) p>m 2) pm>0. Remember, if the product of any number of variables is > or < 0 then so will be the case for the product of the reciprocals of those variables. In fact, to generalize any combination (either as direct products or products of the reciprocals) of a set of variables will yield the same parity wrt 0. For example abcd/ef >0=> abcdef>0, ab/cdef>0, a/bcdef>0, abc/def>0, so on and so forth. Statement 1: p or m could have all sorts of parities (both negatives, both positives, 1 neg + 1 pos, 1 pos + 1 neg). Not sufficient. Statement 2: In light of our discussion above Sufficient Math Revolution GMAT Instructor Joined: 16 Aug 2015 Posts: 7363 GMAT 1: 760 Q51 V42 GPA: 3.82 Re: Is p/m>0? 1) p>m 2) pm>0. [#permalink] ### Show Tags 04 Aug 2017, 02:18 ==> If you modify the original condition and the question, from is p/m>0?, you multiply $$m^2$$ on both sides, you get (Squared number is always positive, so even if you multiply, the inequality sign doesn't change) $$p/m(m^2)>0(m^2)$$?, which becomes pm>0?. The answer is B. Answer: B _________________ MathRevolution: Finish GMAT Quant Section with 10 minutes to spare The one-and-only World’s First Variable Approach for DS and IVY Approach for PS with ease, speed and accuracy. "Only$149 for 3 month Online Course"
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Re: Is p/m>0? 1) p>m 2) pm>0.   [#permalink] 04 Aug 2017, 02:18
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