thelastskybender wrote:
GMATNinja KarishmaB Can you please help me with Q. 101. " which of the following,if true, would most clearly undermine Gallagher`s explanation of the link between Royalism and feminism?"
At the starting of the passage this is mentioned "Catherine Gallagher argues that Royalism engendered feminism because the ideology of absolute monarchy provided a transition to an ideology of the absolute self"
I felt like cause-effect phenomenon was in play here.
Cause: The ideology of absolute monarchy providing a transition to an ideology of the absolute self
Effect: Royalism engendered feminism
If we give the effect any alternative cause, conclusion will get weakened. And A does that by stating "Royalist women were generally better
educated than were their Parliamentarian counterparts." [Giving Education as another cause to get the effect of feminism]
It comes down to the available options. (C) is better than (A) and I will tell you why.
G says that Royalism engendered feminism because the ideology of absolute monarchy provided a transition to an ideology of the absolute self. She proceeded by giving an example of Cavendish. Cavendish was ambitious but knew that as a woman she was excluded from the pursuit of power in the real world (idea of absolute centerstage for the head), so she resolved to be mistress of her own world (absolute self, centre of her own being).
What will undermine this? If we can say that this is not the link. We can do that by undermining the example she gave. That other Royal women did not think the way Cavendish did. Then we undermine G's theory and that is what option (C) does.
Note that it is not said in the passage that G said that this is the ONLY reason why early feminists were Royalists . So giving an alternative isn't the best strategy. The education of Royal women could be an additional reason.
Recall that A caused B does not necessarily mean that C did not cause B until and unless the words imply it. But still, it comes down to the available options.