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# It is common knowledge that a given word can have various

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Manager
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It is common knowledge that a given word can have various [#permalink]

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10 Jul 2011, 21:37
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It is common knowledge that a given word can have various shades of meaning, but how many people are aware that a single word can sometimes be used in completely contradictory ways? For example, the word "cleave" can mean "to adhere" or "to stick together." But just as easily the word "cleave" can mean "to split apart" or "to divide." This proves that words are fundamentally meaningless until they are placed in a sentence.

Which one of the following is an assumption necessary to the author's argument?

Every sentence is meaningful.
Common knowledge is usually wrong.
The possession of two contradictory meanings is equivalent to an absence of meaning.
The word "cleave" is unique in that it can be used in completely contradictory ways.
A word that possesses two shades of meaning is a word that possesses two contradictory meanings.

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Senior Manager
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Re: CR - Assumption 700 level [#permalink]

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10 Jul 2011, 21:49
The author says that words can have various shades of meanings; words can also have contradictory meanings. For that, an example is given followed by a conclusion that generalizes words into meaningless words.

So the author needs to assume that all words that have contradictory meaning are meaningless.
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Concentration: General Management, Social Entrepreneurship
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Re: CR - Assumption 700 level [#permalink]

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10 Jul 2011, 22:35
1
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Every sentence is meaningful. The author is not talking about menanigfulness of sentences. he is saying that words get meaning only when they are placed in a sentence. presumably, words can have meaning even in a meaningless sentence!
Common knowledge is usually wrong.: The author is not saying that. he is ot even arguing against common knowledge (that words have shades of meaning) he is just adding another aspect to it, which is not in common knowledge ( that sometimes words may have contradictory meanings)
The possession of two contradictory meanings is equivalent to an absence of meaning. This option is correct. Author argues that there are words which have contradictory meanings. and then in next sentence says that words are therefore meaningless! he is clearly (and wrongly) equating having two opposing meanings to having no meaning at all!
The word "cleave" is unique in that it can be used in completely contradictory ways. That is not author's assumption - in fact if anything he would assume something opposite of that - since he is using cleave as an example to support a general statement he is making.. his whole argument would fall apart if he would say that cleave is unique!
A word that possesses two shades of meaning is a word that possesses two contradictory meanings. No , auhtor is not assuming that - argument clearly says, 'sometimes' a word can possess.. that doesnt mean that the author is assuming always a word with shades of meaning will have contradictory meanings![/

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Manager
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Re: CR - Assumption 700 level [#permalink]

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11 Jul 2011, 01:44
bschool83 wrote:
It is common knowledge that a given word can have various shades of meaning, but how many people are aware that a single word can sometimes be used in completely contradictory ways? For example, the word "cleave" can mean "to adhere" or "to stick together." But just as easily the word "cleave" can mean "to split apart" or "to divide." This proves that words are fundamentally meaningless until they are placed in a sentence.

Which one of the following is an assumption necessary to the author's argument?

Every sentence is meaningful.
Common knowledge is usually wrong.
The possession of two contradictory meanings is equivalent to an absence of meaning.
The word "cleave" is unique in that it can be used in completely contradictory ways.
A word that possesses two shades of meaning is a word that possesses two contradictory meanings.

I will go with C. what is the OA?

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Senior Manager
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Re: CR - Assumption 700 level [#permalink]

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13 Jul 2011, 07:06
C. First he says that there are two different meanings. Then he jumps and says that words with two different meanings are fundamentally meaningless. C bridges that gap.
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Re: CR - Assumption 700 level [#permalink]

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31 Aug 2011, 17:16
agree with C OA ???
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Manager
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Re: CR - Assumption 700 level [#permalink]

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31 Aug 2011, 21:46
Agree with C..Though A might entice you..But it talks about the entire sentence and not of the word which is used in the sentence..

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Manager
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Re: CR - Assumption 700 level [#permalink]

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06 Sep 2011, 05:06
C

the argument states one example as primise, and makes general claim that words are meaningless.
assumption should make one of the primise true. option C explicitly makes the primise true.
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-------Analyze why option A in SC wrong-------

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Manager
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Re: CR - Assumption 700 level [#permalink]

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10 Sep 2011, 02:25
C fro me

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Manager
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Re: CR - Same word different meanings [#permalink]

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10 Sep 2011, 05:46
yup... nice question!! C is my take as well

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Manager
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Re: CR - Same word different meanings [#permalink]

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10 Sep 2011, 06:12
bschool83 wrote:
It is common knowledge that a given word can have various shades of meaning, but how many people are aware that a single word can sometimes be used in completely contradictory ways? For example, the word "cleave" can mean "to adhere" or "to stick together." But just as easily the word "cleave" can mean "to split apart" or "to divide." This proves that words are fundamentally meaningless until they are placed in a sentence.

Which one of the following is an assumption necessary to the author's argument?

Every sentence is meaningful.
Common knowledge is usually wrong.
The possession of two contradictory meanings is equivalent to an absence of meaning.
The word "cleave" is unique in that it can be used in completely contradictory ways.
A word that possesses two shades of meaning is a word that possesses two contradictory meanings.

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Manager
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Re: CR - Same word different meanings [#permalink]

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10 Sep 2011, 07:28
+1 for C

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Re: CR - Same word different meanings   [#permalink] 10 Sep 2011, 07:28
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