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# It was nearly impossible to diagnose the girl's illness even

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It was nearly impossible to diagnose the girl's illness even [#permalink]

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03 Jul 2008, 15:41
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It was nearly impossible to diagnose the girl’s illness even after three hospitalizations, several months of therapy, and a near mental breakdown because no one medical professional – neither her therapist nor her doctors – were able to see the full scope of her symptoms.

A) neither her therapist nor her doctors – were able to see
B) not even her therapist nor her doctors – were able to see
C) including her therapist and her doctors – were able to see
D) not even her therapist nor her doctors – was able to see
E) neither her therapist nor her doctors – was able to see

(C) 2008 GMAT Club - v05#37
[Reveal] Spoiler: OA

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03 Jul 2008, 15:48
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Quote:
It was nearly impossible to diagnose the girl’s illness even after three hospitalizations, several months of therapy, and a near mental breakdown because no one medical professional – neither her therapist nor her doctors – were able to see the full scope of her symptoms.

(C) 2008 GMAT Club - v05#37

neither her therapist nor her doctors – were able to see
not even her therapist nor her doctors – were able to see
including her therapist and her doctors – were able to see
not even her therapist nor her doctors – was able to see
neither her therapist nor her doctors – was able to see

While I knew that the verb should agree with the form of noun after ‘nor’ (singular or plural), I think that in this case, ‘was able to see’ refers to ‘no one medical professional’, and thus, I would pick E.

I'd like to know whether this reasoning is correct. What do other people think?

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03 Jul 2008, 15:54
im with you, greenoak. singular form is needed here, so i picked E as well

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04 Jul 2008, 07:52
greenoak wrote:
Quote:
It was nearly impossible to diagnose the girl’s illness even after three hospitalizations, several months of therapy, and a near mental breakdown because no one medical professional – neither her therapist nor her doctors – were able to see the full scope of her symptoms.

(C) 2008 GMAT Club - v05#37

neither her therapist nor her doctors – were able to see
not even her therapist nor her doctors – were able to see
including her therapist and her doctors – were able to see
not even her therapist nor her doctors – was able to see
neither her therapist nor her doctors – was able to see

While I knew that the verb should agree with the form of noun after ‘nor’ (singular or plural), I think that in this case, ‘was able to see’ refers to ‘no one medical professional’, and thus, I would pick E.

I'd like to know whether this reasoning is correct. What do other people think?

I agree with you. I believe that since the sentence contains a hyphen (-), we should consider "no one". In absence of the the hyphen,　"were" would have been correct...Is this understanding correct?

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04 Jul 2008, 12:42
Quote:
I agree with you. I believe that since the sentence contains a hyphen (-), we should consider "no one". In absence of the the hyphen,　"were" would have been correct...Is this understanding correct?

Without the hyphen, I think those sentences would have been correct:

Neither girl's therapist nor her doctors were able to see the full scope of her symptoms.

or this one:

Neither girl's doctors nor her therapist was able to see the full scope of her symptoms.

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05 Jul 2008, 06:41
greenoak wrote:
Quote:
It was nearly impossible to diagnose the girl’s illness even after three hospitalizations, several months of therapy, and a near mental breakdown because no one medical professional – neither her therapist nor her doctors – were able to see the full scope of her symptoms.

(C) 2008 GMAT Club - v05#37

neither her therapist nor her doctors – were able to see
not even her therapist nor her doctors – were able to see
including her therapist and her doctors – were able to see
not even her therapist nor her doctors – was able to see
neither her therapist nor her doctors – was able to see

While I knew that the verb should agree with the form of noun after ‘nor’ (singular or plural), I think that in this case, ‘was able to see’ refers to ‘no one medical professional’, and thus, I would pick E.

I'd like to know whether this reasoning is correct. What do other people think?

Could someone explain why C is incorrect?
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05 Jul 2008, 17:31
C is incorrect because the subject is no one medical professional and not the compound subject of therapist and doctors as it seems.

Good Q. +1

Can some explain when can nor be used with out neither or vice versa? Can they be used without the other?

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It was nearly impossible to diagnose the girl's illness even [#permalink]

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29 Aug 2008, 12:23
It was nearly impossible to diagnose the girl’s illness even after three hospitalizations, several months of therapy, and a near mental breakdown because no one medical professional – neither her therapist nor her doctors – were able to see the full scope of her symptoms.

A) neither her therapist nor her doctors – were able to see
B) not even her therapist nor her doctors – were able to see
C) including her therapist and her doctors – were able to see
D) not even her therapist nor her doctors – was able to see
E) neither her therapist nor her doctors – was able to see

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29 Aug 2008, 12:35
chan4312 wrote:
It was nearly impossible to diagnose the girl’s illness even after three hospitalizations, several months of therapy, and a near mental breakdown because no one medical professional – neither her therapist nor her doctors – were able to see the full scope of her symptoms.

A) neither her therapist nor her doctors – were able to see
B) not even her therapist nor her doctors – were able to see
C) including her therapist and her doctors – were able to see
D) not even her therapist nor her doctors – was able to see
E) neither her therapist nor her doctors – was able to see

I will go with E

no one medical professional was able to see.

what is OA.
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03 Sep 2008, 14:52
The verb follows plural subject 'doctors'...therefore it has to be A...what is the OA?

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03 Sep 2008, 14:56
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IMO E.

neither her therapist nor her doctors is just a modifier and we should try the sentence after removing this part..

no one medical professional was..

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03 Sep 2008, 15:27
Yep, I believe I saw this Q before. The subject here is no one medical professional and not doctors. Hence E

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04 Sep 2008, 05:56
"Neither"..."nor", one needs was, correct idiom able to, so I chose E.

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It was nearly impossible to diagnose the girls illness even [#permalink]

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06 Mar 2011, 12:32
It was nearly impossible to diagnose the girl’s illness even after three hospitalizations, several months of therapy, and a near mental breakdown because no one medical professional – neither her therapist nor her doctors – were able to see the full scope of her symptoms.

(C) 2008 GMAT Club - v05#37

* neither her therapist nor her doctors – were able to see
* not even her therapist nor her doctors – were able to see
* including her therapist and her doctors – were able to see
* not even her therapist nor her doctors – was able to see
* neither her therapist nor her doctors – was able to see

Neither/ nor- the subject closes to the verb should agree with the subject.

Here See is the verb and doctors is the subject. Hence the correct choice should be were

I picked A. OA is E and explanation below:

This sentence tests the correct use of the phrase neither...nor as well as subject-verb agreement when subject and verb are split across a parenthetical phrase. The words no one before the hyphen indicate that the parenthetical expression must contain a negative expression, the word neither. Neither is idiomatically paired with the word nor. Also, the subject of the clause – no one medical professional – requires the singular verb was.

1. Were is a plural verb that does not agree with the singular no one medical professional.
2. Not even cannot be correctly idiomatically paired with nor, and were is an incorrect verb.
3. Were is a plural verb and does not agree with the singular subject of the clause; also, the word including does not sufficiently respond to the words no one, which come before the hyphen.
4. The words not even are not idiomatically correct when paired with the word nor.
5. The phrase neither...nor is idiomatically correct, and the singular verb was agrees with the subject no one medical professional.

Can some one point what is wrong in my answer explanation?

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Re: Neither nor vs plural/singular [#permalink]

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07 Mar 2011, 00:28
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+1 E

This is a S-V agreement problem. Notice that "neither her therapist nor her doctors" is between dashes. The subject of the subordinate clause "because no one... symptons" is "no one", which is always singular.

The GMAT will always try to put words between the subject and the verb. Your job is to find the subject first.
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Re: Neither nor vs plural/singular [#permalink]

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07 Mar 2011, 05:49
metallicafan wrote:
+1 E

This is a S-V agreement problem. Notice that "neither her therapist nor her doctors" is between dashes. The subject of the subordinate clause "because no one... symptons" is "no one", which is always singular.

The GMAT will always try to put words between the subject and the verb. Your job is to find the subject first.

Is it alright to assume what ever choice works when i remove the middle part is the correct one?

for example- " no one medical professional was able to see"

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18 Sep 2011, 13:43
I thought since it is doctors, verb should be plural "were" rather than "was". So chose A. But looks like dashed sentence is just a modifier. Another point to dashed sentences!
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18 Sep 2011, 19:02
A good question. I got it wrong, but I can see why E is the correct choice.

None - verb can be plural or singular.
No one/Not one - singular.

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Re: It was nearly impossible to diagnose the girl’s illness even [#permalink]

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23 Apr 2013, 03:05
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Rock750 wrote:
It was nearly impossible to diagnose the girl’s illness even after three hospitalizations, several months of therapy, and a near mental breakdown because no one medical professional – neither her therapist nor her doctors – were able to see the full scope of her symptoms.

A) neither her therapist nor her doctors – were able to see
B) not even her therapist nor her doctors – were able to see
C) including her therapist and her doctors – were able to see
D) not even her therapist nor her doctors – was able to see
E) neither her therapist nor her doctors – was able to see

[Reveal] Spoiler:
Soon

The corret idiom is "neither ... nor". We can easly eliminate all but A and E.
If we look at the phrase, it says "no one medical professional ( SINGULAR)" so the next part must mantain this structure.
IMO E
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Re: It was nearly impossible to diagnose the girl’s illness even [#permalink]

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23 Apr 2013, 03:13
Hi Zarroulou,

Is there any rule that clarify this : When choosing the Subject-Verb Pairs, one can omit the construction -- X -- between the SV?
i think it is matter of punctuation here .. what -- X -- represents here ?
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Re: It was nearly impossible to diagnose the girl’s illness even   [#permalink] 23 Apr 2013, 03:13

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