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Most scholars agree that King Alfred (A.D 849 - 899) personally

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Most scholars agree that King Alfred (A.D 849 - 899) personally  [#permalink]

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New post 21 Oct 2018, 05:04
AJ1012 wrote:
Most scholars agree that King Alfred (A.D 849 - 899) personally translated a number of Latin texts into Old English. One historian contends that Alfred also personally penned his own law code, arguing that the numerous differences between the language of the law code and Alfred's translation of Latin texts are outweighed by the even more numerous similarities. Linguistic similarities, however, are what one expects in texts from the same language, the same time, and the same region. Apart from Alfred's surviving translation and law code, there are only two other extant works from the same dialect and milieu, so it is risky to assume here that linguistic similarities point to common authorship.

Official Answer:

Argument Evaluation

Situation A historian argues that King Alfred must have written his own law code, since there are more similarities than differences between the language in the law code and that in Alfred's translations of Latin texts. Apart from Alfred's translations and law code, there are only two other extant works in the same dialect and from the same milieu.

Reasoning How does the reasoning in the passage proceed? The first sentence presents a claim that is not disputed in the passage. The second sentence presents a historian's argument. Implicitly citing the undisputed claim in the passage's first sentence as evidence, the historian proposes an analogy between the law code and Alfred's translations, arguing on the basis of this analogy that Alfred wrote the law code. The third sentence of the passage casts doubt on this analogy, pointing out that it could plausibly apply to texts that Alfred did not write. The fourth sentence suggests that too few extant texts are available as evidence to rule out the possibility raised in the third sentence. Thus, the third and fourth sentences are intended to undermine the historian's argument.

AJ1012 wrote:
The passage above proceeds by

(A) Providing examples that underscore another argument's conclusion.

(B) questioning the plausibility of an assumption on which another argument depends.

(c) showing that a principle if generally applied would have anomalous consequences.

(D) showing that the premises of another argument are mutually inconsistent.

(E) using argument by analogy to undermine a principle implicit in another argument.



Option B is Correct. The passage's third and fourth sentences question the plausibility of the historian's assumption that no one but Alfred would have been likely to write a text whose language has more similarities to than differences from the language in Alfred's translations.

Why are A, C, D & E incorrect:-

A - As explained above, the passage is intended to undermine the conclusion of the historian's argument, not to underscore (emphasize) it.

C - Although there might well be anomalous consequences from generalizing the assumption on which the historian's argument relies, the passage does not mention or allude to any such consequences.

D - The passage does not mention, or suggest the existence of, any inconsistencies among the premises of the historian's argument.

E - Although the historian argues by analogy, the passage does not itself argue by analogy; it does not suggest any specific counteranalogy to undermine the historian's argument.
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Re: Most scholars agree that King Alfred (A.D 849 - 899) personally  [#permalink]

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New post 15 Nov 2018, 07:33
Quote:
Option B is Correct. The passage's third and fourth sentences question the plausibility of the historian's assumption that no one but Alfred would have been likely to write a text whose language has more similarities to than differences from the language in Alfred's translations.


How can this be an assumption? It has been clearly stated in passage as premise :- "One historian contends that Alfred also personally penned his own law code"

GMATNinjaTwo abhimahna Can you please help?

Thanks.
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Most scholars agree that King Alfred (A.D 849 - 899) personally  [#permalink]

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New post 01 Dec 2018, 22:03
A lot of the complexity of this CR (RC hybrid really lol) is in the language used.

Conclusion: It is risky to assume that linguistic similarities point to common authorship
Strength: relatively strong given the conclusion isn't absolute
Premise: Someone should expect linguistic similarities between texts when those texts are written in the same time, language and region
Supporting premise/ sub-conclusion by other author: one historian contends that Alf personally penned (Wrote) his own law code because the linguistic similarities between alfred's translations of the latin texts and law code outweigh the linguistic differences
Supporting premise: Apart from Alfreds translations + Law code there are only two other extant (existent) works from the same dialect and milieu
Supporting premise: most scholars agree that Alf translated a number of texts himself

(A) Providing examples that underscore another argument's conclusion.
Underscore means "emphasise" - underscore sounds like you're speaking down to something when in fact you are emphasising it. The argument isn't emphasisting the sub-conclusion it is saying the opposite

(B) questioning the plausibility of an assumption on which another argument depends.
Yes - By stating "its risky to assume that X leads to common authorship" the author is questioning or saying not to follow the sub-conclusion blindly

(c) showing that a principle if generally applied would have anomalous consequences.
No - The author is questioning the conclusion and principles applied by other scholars/the historian. He isn't saying that applying this principle would lead to exceptional consequences.

(D) showing that the premises of another argument are mutually inconsistent.
This is the runner up answer that most people will likely get stung by because the author is questioning the premises supporting another conclusion (the sub-conclusion), but he isn't saying they're inconsistent. In fact they are logical, but more evidence would be needed to link the premises to the sub-conclusion.

(E) using argument by analogy to undermine a principle implicit in another argument.
The author does undermine a principle, but he isn't arguing by anaology. Warped answer --> Eliminate
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Re: Most scholars agree that King Alfred (A.D 849 - 899) personally  [#permalink]

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New post 14 Jun 2019, 22:01
AnubhavK wrote:
Answer choice 'B' is correct -

The passage's third and fourth sentences question the plausibility of the historian's assumption that no one but Alfred would have been likely to write a text whose language has more similarities to than differences from the language in Alfred's translations


could you pleasw tell me the plausibility 'means
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Re: Most scholars agree that King Alfred (A.D 849 - 899) personally  [#permalink]

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New post 10 Jul 2019, 01:53
NonPlus wrote:
Quote:
Option B is Correct. The passage's third and fourth sentences question the plausibility of the historian's assumption that no one but Alfred would have been likely to write a text whose language has more similarities to than differences from the language in Alfred's translations.


How can this be an assumption? It has been clearly stated in passage as premise :- "One historian contends that Alfred also personally penned his own law code"

GMATNinjaTwo abhimahna Can you please help?

Thanks.


Dear All,

I also have the same question.
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Most scholars agree that King Alfred (A.D 849 - 899) personally  [#permalink]

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New post 23 Nov 2019, 21:44
I understand why the answer is b but still cannot understand the implication of the fourth sentence. I read the OA explanation but still don't get it. Why does the author mention the other extant works? What do these works actually mean or how do they rule out the possibility raised in the third sentence?

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Re: Most scholars agree that King Alfred (A.D 849 - 899) personally  [#permalink]

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New post 18 Dec 2019, 02:59
Know what? This question is a Medium question, according to GMAC
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Most scholars agree that King Alfred (A.D 849 - 899) personally  [#permalink]

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New post 02 Jan 2020, 05:03
GMATNinjaTwo When the question says "the passage proceeds by" - is it referring to anticipate what will follow after this passage or the "passage ends by"? Might sounds basic but got thrown off by this question as I understood that in the last sentence it is clearly questioning the plausability i.e B..instead chose A =/ thinking that after the last sentence it may gave further examples.
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Re: Most scholars agree that King Alfred (A.D 849 - 899) personally  [#permalink]

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New post 12 Jan 2020, 07:53
Apart from Alfred's surviving translation and law code, there are only two other extant works from the same dialect and milieu,

Any expert can help explain further this sentence? Does it mean except Alfred’s surviving transit and law code, there are two other extant works? What does” two other extant works” refer to? Two works worked by Alfred or whoever else?

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Re: Most scholars agree that King Alfred (A.D 849 - 899) personally   [#permalink] 12 Jan 2020, 07:53

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