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# of MS

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Intern
Joined: 29 Dec 2010
Posts: 4
Location: serbia
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13 Jan 2011, 11:35
intended for trained mathemematics
Theorem: to prove that every real number is the result of divisions of two integers
To prove this theorem, I will bring the term (one digit, two digit , three digit,... real numbers), they show how many digits beyond the natural (whole) numbers after the commas (points)
R = Z: (10 ^ x), x different from the number zero
b = {1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9} a = {0,1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9} possible values and a(b)
R-real numbers, Z-whole numbers
x = 1, Z : (10 ^ 1) = {Z Z.b}
x = 2, Z : (10 ^ 2) = {Z, Z.b, Z.ab}
x = 3, Z : (10 ^ 3) = {Z, Z.b, Z.ab, Z.aab}
x = 4, Z : (10 ^ 4) = {Z, Z.b, Z.ab, Z.aab, Z.aaab}
x = 5, Z : (10 ^ 5) = {Z, Z.b, Z.ab, Z.aab, Z.aaab, Z.aaaab}
....
when the value of x is infinite, as the results are all real numbers
This evidence proves that the real and rational numbers one and the same numbers to irrational numbers do not exist, set this theorem to their mathematics teachers, and this shows that the current mathematics is limited and that there are errors (this is one of the errors). All solutions are not shown because for this we need all the infinite states, but was given a sample (as well as natural (whole) numbers are not written all but given sample. You think differently from what you give in school.
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Joined: 04 Jan 2011
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13 Jan 2011, 14:48
I'm not entirely sure from your wording of it, but I think you're referencing Georg Cantor's "diagonalization" proof that there can be no one-to-one mapping of Rational Numbers onto Irrational Numbers. However, from this, neither Cantor nor any of the mathematicians of his time concluded that their mathematics was incomplete; simply that there was a denser infinity of Irrational Numbers than Rational Numbers. In fact, if a = the size of the infinity of rational numbers (or of even numbers, or of odd numbers, or of integers, or of positive integers, etc. -- all of these "countable" sets have size "a") then, Cantor showed, irrational numbers have an infinity of the size 2^a.

The incompleteness of math is shown by Godel's 1931 Incompleteness Theorem. For an excellent discussion of this theorem (which can also be set up with a "diagonalization" proof, although that wasn't how Godel himself did it), written for laypeople, try this excellent classic text: http://www.amazon.com/G%C3%B6dels-Proof ... 621&sr=8-1
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Re: of MS   [#permalink] 13 Jan 2011, 14:48
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