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Wonder if this is a GMAT question at all .. here's my take.
One reason why European music has had such a strong influence throughout the world, and why it is a sophisticated achievement, is that over time the original function of the music—whether ritual, dance, or worship—gradually became an aspect of its style, not its defining force. Dance music could stand independent of dance, for example, and sacred music independent of religious worship, because each composition has so much internal coherence that the music ultimately depends on nothing but itself.
Overall argument - influence of european music over the world and the reasons for such an influence.
Asked to find an incompatible point of view
A) African music has had a more powerful impact on the world than European music has had. There's a comparison drawn between two types of music - Relevant (B) European military and economic expansionism partially explains the global influence of European music. Influence of Eurpoean music - relevant (C) The original functions of many types of Chinese music are no longer their defining forces. Again comparison to Chinese music - relevant (D) Music that is unintelligible when it is presented independently of its original function tends to be the most sophisticated music. Again there is a reference to music sophestication - relevant (E) Some works of art lose their appeal when they are presented to serve a function other than their original one. This is very vague and abstract - What function are they serving and what is the original function. I'll go with E. _________________
In the land of the night, the chariot of the sun is drawn by the grateful dead
The entire post has turned into a new question itself..
WHAT IS THE OA????
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|Do not post questions with OA|Please underline your SC questions while posting|Try posting the explanation along with your answer choice| |For CR refer Powerscore CR Bible|For SC refer Manhattan SC Guide|
First off, the question asks for the only incompatible statement (not an answer that is not supported by the passage, but one that goes against it).
A) No mention is made to the relative popularity of European and African music. African music could be extremely popular and the reasons for European music popularity would stand unchallenged. Wrong answer.
B) It suggests the existence of another factor that contributed to the popularity of European music. The passage says that ONE of the reasons is blah blah blah, not THE ONLY reason, therefore B is compatible with the passage. Wrong answer.
C) It describes the changes in Chinese music without mentioning the effect of such changes, therefore it does not contraddict the passage. Wrong answer.
D) It says that music that becomes unintelligible when separated from its original function is the most sophisticated type, but the passage says that European music, which is highly sophisticated, is internally coherent, hence intelligible, even when detached from its original function. This statement contraddicts the passage. Right answer.
E) It contraddicts the idea exposed in the statement but with no direct reference to music. The statement could hold true for all forms of art except music and the passage would still be valid. Wrong answer.
Yes, this one is definitely D, though it isn't at all like any real GMAT CR questions, so people shouldn't worry about it much. The question asks which answer choices are 'compatible with' the information given in the stem - that is, it's asking which answer choices could, in theory be true if you accept the information given.
The point of the passage is that "sophisticated" European music "has so much internal coherence that the music ultimately depends on nothing but itself." Even when this music is divorced from its function, it is still *coherent*. That contradicts D completely, which says that sophisticated music is *unintelligible*.
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