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Re: Art historians approach to French Impressionism has changed significa [#permalink]
1
Kudos
I think the longer humanity passages are actually easier than the short ones :) Got all correct.

Best approach is to not get involved in too much detail and just try to get the main point.

The shorter hard passages tend to pack detail and hence may be tougher.
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Re: Art historians approach to French Impressionism has changed significa [#permalink]
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Hello samichange / arundas / krishireddy

Can you please share the version of the passage that you read in the first go by omitting all that you neglect in the first read ?
It will certainly help me to understand what you need to ready & what you can skip to attempt such long pasaages....

Thanks in advance.
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Re: Art historians approach to French Impressionism has changed significa [#permalink]
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NickHalden wrote:
Hello samichange / arundas / krishireddy

Can you please share the version of the passage that you read in the first go by omitting all that you neglect in the first read ?
It will certainly help me to understand what you need to ready & what you can skip to attempt such long pasaages....

Thanks in advance.



I do not think that we can skip anything while reading.I tried and found the skipping strategy useless.
Generally, I read a para , stop for 3-6 seconds, try to para-phrase what I have read and get the main point.
At the end,I think it is best to get a hang of the structure and organization of the passage.
But all the above comes with practice.
I do not skip any part but may slow down to read difficult part and speed up to read the easy part.

Hope the above helps!!!!
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Re: Art historians approach to French Impressionism has changed significa [#permalink]
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Kudos
the question is pretty much easy

Quote:
Moreover, the rationale for Herbert’s emphasis on the social and political realities that Impressionist paintings can be said to communicate rather than on their style is finally undermined by what even Herbert concedes was the failure of Impressionist painters to serve as particularly conscientious illustrators of their social milieu. They left much ordinary experience—work and poverty, for example—out of their paintings and what they did put in was transformed by a style that had only an indirect relationship to the social realities of the world they depicted. Not only were their pictures inventions rather than photographs, they were inventions in which style to some degree disrupted description. Their painting in effect have two levels of subject: what is represented and how it is represented, and no art historian can afford to emphasize one at the expense of the other.


To grasp the meaning of the question,i.e what it does ask to you, is important to read the entire last paragraph.
From the highlighted sentences is clear that painters not only distort the reality, but also disrupt it. And this as a consequence never should be done

Is clear now ?? :wink:
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Re: Art historians approach to French Impressionism has changed significa [#permalink]
Thanks a lot carcass, after your explanation, I gave it a thought myself, and discovered the trick to answering it - to align the option with the main point of the the para!

carcass wrote:
the question is pretty much easy

Quote:
Moreover, the rationale for Herbert’s emphasis on the social and political realities that Impressionist paintings can be said to communicate rather than on their style is finally undermined by what even Herbert concedes was the failure of Impressionist painters to serve as particularly conscientious illustrators of their social milieu. They left much ordinary experience—work and poverty, for example—out of their paintings and what they did put in was transformed by a style that had only an indirect relationship to the social realities of the world they depicted. Not only were their pictures inventions rather than photographs, they were inventions in which style to some degree disrupted description. Their painting in effect have two levels of subject: what is represented and how it is represented, and no art historian can afford to emphasize one at the expense of the other.


To grasp the meaning of the question,i.e what it does ask to you, is important to read the entire last paragraph.
From the highlighted sentences is clear that painters not only distort the reality, but also disrupt it. And this as a consequence never should be done

Is clear now ?? :wink:
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Re: Art historians approach to French Impressionism has changed significa [#permalink]
Could someone who got Q5 correct share their thought process?
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Re: Art historians approach to French Impressionism has changed significa [#permalink]
Hi.. Can anyone explain Q5 & Q7. Thanks
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Re: Art historians approach to French Impressionism has changed significa [#permalink]
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Hello members

hannibal
NickHalden

Here it is the Rhyme RC Strategy

https://gmatclub.com/forum/how-to-destr ... 30247.html

Hope it helps
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Re: Art historians approach to French Impressionism has changed significa [#permalink]
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Hello

goforgmat
Amanrai93
NinetyFour
PAVANIJOSHI374

Here is Q5 and 7

Explanation


5. Which one of the following most accurately describes the structure of the author’s argument in the passage?

Explanation

Difficulty Level: 700

In the last sentence of Para 1, the author claims that Herbert’s arguments are unpersuasive. In Para 2 and 3, she explains why. (A), (B), (E) Para 2 doesn’t present a second argument (A); revise a thesis (B); or present a counterargument (E). Like Para 3, it simply fleshes out an argument made in Para 1. (C) Like Para 2, Para 3 supports the argument made in Para 1. Moreover, this Para doesn’t contain an “alternative thesis.” The author simply suggests that art criticism must take into account both stylistic and content issues; but that hardly qualifies as an “alternative thesis.”

• When describing the structure of a passage, watch out for answer choices containing features that weren’t mentioned (in this case, (A), (B) and (E)).

ANSWER: D


7. The author would most likely regard a book on the impressionists that focused entirely on their style as

Explanation

Difficulty Level: 700

This choice nicely paraphrases the last sentence of the passage, in which the author says that critiques of Impressionist paintings must take into account both their style and
content.

(A) Herbert’s book, which is based on the content of Impressionist paintings, wouldn’t lead to a book on Impressionist style.

(B) The passage reveals what art historians think about Impressionism; it doesn’t provide any genuine insight into what Impressionists themselves thought should be their “primary artistic concern.”

(C) The traditional interpretation of Impressionism, like that found in Rewald’s book, emphasizes stylistic issues.

(D) The author simply says that critiques of Impressionism must address both stylistic and content issues; she doesn’t comment on what constitutes the most “innovative” part of Impressionist painting.

• This question highlights the importance of reading the entire passage. The answer to a question or two often appears in the last few sentences of the text.

ANSWER: E


Hope it Helps
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Re: Art historians approach to French Impressionism has changed significa [#permalink]
How can answer to Q1 be b ?
Please explain :(
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Re: Art historians approach to French Impressionism has changed significa [#permalink]
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Explanation


1. Which one of the following best expresses the main point of the passage?

Difficulty Level: 650

Explanation.

In line 17, the author calls Herbert’s approach to the analysis of French Impressionism “not persuasive,” which is simply another way of saying “inadequate.” The rest of the passage explains why the author thinks this.

(A) focuses on a detail in para 3.

(B) Is the correct answer

(C) distorts the passage. The author claims that Herbert’s work hasn’t successfully placed Impressionism in an historical context. That’s not the same as saying that historical context is irrelevant to interpreting Impressionist works.

(D), too, distorts the passage. The “ideological conflict and change” alluded to in the passage concerns the interpretation of Impressionist works, not the works themselves.

(E) The author is critical of Herbert, so it’s not likely that she would endorse the notion that future analyses of Impressionism will have to take his work into account.

Answer: B


Hope it helps

Apoorva2801 wrote:
How can answer to Q1 be b ? Please explain :(
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Re: Art historians approach to French Impressionism has changed significa [#permalink]
SajjadAhmad

Can you please post answer of Q. 6

Thanks
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Re: Art historians approach to French Impressionism has changed significa [#permalink]
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Explanation


6. The author’s statement that impressionist paintings “were inventions in which style to some degree disrupted description” (Highlighted) serves to

Difficulty Level: 650-700

Explanation

Para 3’s general thrust is that not too much about society can be inferred from Impressionist paintings because Impressionists consciously distorted reality for stylistic reasons.

(A) and (C) touch on a distinction made by the author, not by Impressionists themselves.

(B) This quote comes up in the context of an argument that denies the validity of exclusively concentrating on the substance of Impressionist paintings.

(E) If anything, this quote supports the claim that Impressionists ignored certain subjects to concentrate on others.

Answer: D


Hope it helps

hero_with_1000_faces wrote:
SajjadAhmad

Can you please post answer of Q. 6

Thanks
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Re: Art historians approach to French Impressionism has changed significa [#permalink]
Can Somebody explain the answer for Q 7 ?
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Re: Art historians approach to French Impressionism has changed significa [#permalink]
Expert Reply
Adi88 wrote:
Can Somebody explain the answer for Q 7 ?


Please read the explanation in the link below

https://gmatclub.com/forum/art-historia ... l#p2247309

Good Luck
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Re: Art historians approach to French Impressionism has changed significa [#permalink]
Hi , Sajjad1994
Quote:
3. The author implies that Herbert’s redefinition of the boundaries of impressionism resulted from which one of the following?

(A) an exclusive emphasis on form and style
(B) a bias in favor of the representation of modern industry
(C) an attempt to place impressionism within a specific sociocultural context
(D) a broadening of the term impressionism to include all nineteenth-century French painting
(E) an insufficient familiarity with earlier interpretations of impressionism


What is the meaning of the sentence: -
The author implies that Herbert’s redefinition of the boundaries of impressionism resulted from which one of the following?

What caused the Herberts redefinition of the boundaries of impressionism?
or what was the result of the Herbert's redefinition of the boundaries of impressionism?

Thanks.
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Re: Art historians approach to French Impressionism has changed significa [#permalink]
Expert Reply
Explanation


3. The author implies that Herbert’s redefinition of the boundaries of impressionism resulted from which one of the following?

Difficulty Level: 550

Explanation

Lines 23-25 (In attempting to place Impressionist painting in its proper historical context, Herbert has redrawn the traditional boundaries of Impressionism.) state that Herbert changed the boundaries of Impressionism in order to put it in its “proper . . . context.”

(A) Rewald, not Herbert, emphasized “form and style.”

(B) The fact that Herbert is associated with a school of art criticism that condemns Impressionism’s failure to represent industrial life doesn’t mean that he personally harbored a bias in favor of industrial life.

(D) The author accuses Herbert of “redrawing the traditional boundaries of Impressionism” in a bizarre manner, but doesn’t accuse him of incorporating all of the nineteenth-century French painting into his definition of Impressionism. In fact, the author criticizes Rewald for restricting his analysis to the 1860s and 1870s.

(E) The author suggests that Herbert’s redefinition of Impressionism stemmed from his dissatisfaction with earlier criticism of that school.

Answer: C


PriyamRathor wrote:
Hi , Sajjad1994
Quote:

3. The author implies that Herbert’s redefinition of the boundaries of impressionism resulted from which one of the following?

(A) an exclusive emphasis on form and style
(B) a bias in favor of the representation of modern industry
(C) an attempt to place impressionism within a specific sociocultural context
(D) a broadening of the term impressionism to include all nineteenth-century French painting
(E) an insufficient familiarity with earlier interpretations of impressionism


What is the meaning of the sentence: -
The author implies that Herbert’s redefinition of the boundaries of impressionism resulted from which one of the following?

What caused the Herberts redefinition of the boundaries of impressionism?
or what was the result of the Herbert's redefinition of the boundaries of impressionism?
Thanks.
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