AndrewN wrote:
PyjamaScientist wrote:
Andrewn wrote:
A native English speaker would admittedly have an edge: (D) looks antiquated and would "feel" off.
On one hand,
GMATNinja has spent countless hours and burnt countless calories preaching not to fall for the "
feel" of the choices. But, at the same time, as this question suggests, one "does need" that "feel" quotient to pick an answer choice.
Alas, GMAT's world is tough.
Actually, I think you are missing the larger point I was hoping to convey, the
opposite of what you have written above. I agree with Charles. I would not counsel someone to sort through answer choices by using the Force or some such. However, I think a native English speaker would undoubtedly find the (A)/(D) split much easier than a non-native would,
without consciously thinking about or knowing why. In other words, one does
not need to rely on "feel" to arrive at an accurate conclusion. I was saying that I agree with
DmitryFarber that the meaning conveyed in (D) is questionable, even without resorting to its odd "sound."
I concur that the GMAT™ can throw some tough questions our way, and that it can seem cruel at times. But our goal should be to embrace such challenges and seek to rise to the occasion.
Keep going.
- Andrew
I'll echo Andrew's wise words here. While a native speaker's ear may pick up on some unconventional usage that a nonnative speaker's might miss, that same ear may, on another question,
get rid of the correct answer because it doesn't sound right!
The point: a "good" ear can work against you too. That's why it's better to rely on logic and clarity.
Take another look at the relevant portion of (D):
Quote:
Several million tons of stone were quarried in France so that there could be built eighty cathedrals.
When I saw "there", my first thought was that it referred to France. They quarried the material to France, so they could build
there. But then I read it again, and thought that "there" was one of those goofy place-holders, the kind you might see in a phrase like "there is a problem." Then I read it a third time... and still wasn't sure what "there" was doing.
And usually when we see the construction, "there could be," we expect a noun to follow, right? "There could be fudge!" "There could be burritos!"
But here, we get "there could be
built." Definitively wrong? Maybe not. But still pretty darn confusing, even after I reread it.
If the meaning in (A) is clear and logical, and I (still) can't make sense of (D), I can confidently select (A). No instinctive "feel" is necessary.
I hope that helps!
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