Keby1nja wrote:
Lucky1994 wrote:
Hello Experts,
Why can't the answer be B? In C, i negated because of the word "innocent people".
What if the action of manufacturer isn't harming any innocent people? Then also he should be responsible which is stated in B.
Please explain.
I believe the answer lies with the keyword "ONLY" on answer B. GMAT answer choices for these specific, sweeping generalisations are often wrong. Answer choice B states that companies are responsible ONLY for those preventable. What about those not preventable?
Perhaps others can chip in.
Posted from my mobile deviceYou're right to read precisely and take into account any extreme wording. However, sometimes extreme wording is perfectly fine, because the passage itself is being extreme.
It's my duty to remind everyone that the takeaway here is NOT that "sweeping generalisations are often wrong." Falling back on that assumption at any point makes waste of the consistent, disciplined reasoning skills that we all spend so much time building up to improve our GMAT scores.
All that said, recall that the conclusion is, "Earlier ignorance of this connection does not absolve T's manufacturer of responsibility."
Here's how the logic supporting this conclusion breaks down:
- T caused at least some serious illnesses among many workers who handled T.
- Had T's manufacturer investigated the safety of T before allowing workers to be exposed to it, many of those worker illnesses would have been prevented.
- Consequently, earlier ignorance of this connection does not absolve T's manufacturer of all responsibility.
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Which one of the following principles most helps to justify the conclusion above?
Both (B) and (E) tell us to hold manufacturers responsible for the consequences of their actions. So what makes one a better answer choice than the other?
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(E) Manufacturers should be held responsible for the consequences of any of their actions that harm innocent people if those consequences were preventable.
Choice (E) states that we should hold manufacturers responsible for the consequences of ANY of those actions, provided those consequences were preventable. This fits very well into the logic of the passage:
- T caused at least some serious illnesses among many workers who handled T.
- Manufacturers should be held responsible for the consequences of ANY of their actions that harm innocent people if those consequences were preventable.
- Had T's manufacturer investigated the safety of T before allowing workers to be exposed to it, many of those worker illnesses would have been prevented.
- Consequently, earlier ignorance of this connection does not absolve T's manufacturer of all responsibility.
If we should hold T's manufacturer responsible for ANY actions leading to preventable consequences, then surely ignorance of this connection does not absolve T's manufacturer of ALL responsibility. That's why we keep (E).
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(B) Manufacturers should be held responsible only for the preventable consequences of their actions.
Choice (B) states that we should hold manufacturers responsible for their actions ONLY when the consequences of their actions are preventable. This implies that we should NOT hold manufacturers responsible for their actions when the consequences of their actions are not preventable.
This wording sends us away from the logic of the argument. If the author is making a case to hold T's manufacturer responsible in spite of earlier ignorance, the author would not reach for a principle that broadly
limits when we can hold manufacturers responsible.
On top of all this, why would the author reach for (B) as a supporting principle when (E) fits the author's argument much more directly?
Choice (B) might work in a pinch, but (E) does more to help justify the conclusion. That's why (E) is the better choice.
I hope this helps!