SajjadAhmad wrote:
Official Explanation
This argument relies on the assumption that Gregg’s Syndrome is more prevalent among Puma Syndrome victims who take Betatol than among those who take Aidistan. Choice (A) essentially affirms this assumption, although it expresses it in a somewhat different way. Given that Gregg’s Syndrome renders any Puma Syndrome treatment less effective, if victims who have both syndromes are treated with Betatol while victims who have only Puma Syndrome are treated with Aidistan, then Aidistan will appear to be more effective, although the absence of Gregg’s Syndrome might in fact be the key factor that explains the differing results.
The correct answer is (A).
I have few clarifications here:
1. You state the Assumption as following:
This argument relies on the assumption that Gregg’s Syndrome is more prevalent among Puma Syndrome victims who take Betatol than among those who take Aidistan.My understanding of the question stem:
Premise 1: PharmaCorp (PC) claims its drug A is more effective in treating Puma Syndrome than is drug B.
Premise 2: PC states a Stats fact --> 1/2 successful cases for drug A whereas 1/3 such cases for drug B. Both used alone.
Premise 3: Gregg's Syndrome has been known to render PS more resistant to any treatment.
Conclusion: PC's claims cannot be taken seriously.
Nowhere in the Question stem mentioned implicitly that Gregg's syndrome is more prevalent among Puma Syndrome victims,
who take Betatol2. Rest of the explanation aligns more with C than with A. C states that Gregg's syndrome is indeed a factor, and that nullifies the effect of A more than effect of B. So in the presence of Gregg's Syndrome, PC cannot claim that its drug A is better than B. Though somewhat murkier, option C could not be eliminated.
On the other hand, option A neither supports nor weakens the conclusion. It states that for people with both GS and PS, fewer are treated with A than with B. Question stem states it renders any drug ineffective. So does the #people treated matters? Of course, we can assume that it is because drug A is less effective when both syndromes are present. But that's what option C says.
Can you help me where I am going wrong?