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Re: Usage of HAVE BEEN - Kaplan [#permalink]
Thanks Eli,

This (2) is new funda to me. Can you please provide some more examples for (2) case?

KapTeacherEli wrote:
Hi ykaiim,

In the first problem, 'have been' isn't a matter of continuing vs. not continuing; it's a matter of specified time versus unspecified time. In the first sentence, we are given a time cue to when they were motivated: the change was "recent," at the time of the amendments. Because we know when the even happens, even if not the exact time, the simple past is correct

In the second, we have no time cues whatsoever; we don't know if the earthquakes happened yesterday or 100 million years ago. When an English sentences discusses events in the past without specifying the time frame, the present perfect 'have/has [participle]' tense is correct.
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Re: Usage of HAVE BEEN - Kaplan [#permalink]
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hey Eli

Sorry to butt in. I found this topic interesting. In the second, "have shifted" ---> changes the meaning of the sentence.

tectonic plates have been shifted by earthquakes and other similar phenomena. ---> means that plates do not shift on their own. They were shifted by earthquakes.

tectonic plates have shifted by earthquakes and other similar phenomena. ---> This is illogical. How can plates shift on their own?

I may be wrong, but I think that's a fair difference between the two expressions.

KapTeacherEli wrote:
Hi ykaiim,

In the first problem, 'have been' isn't a matter of continuing vs. not continuing; it's a matter of specified time versus unspecified time. In the first sentence, we are given a time cue to when they were motivated: the change was "recent," at the time of the amendments. Because we know when the even happens, even if not the exact time, the simple past is correct

In the second, we have no time cues whatsoever; we don't know if the earthquakes happened yesterday or 100 million years ago. When an English sentences discusses events in the past without specifying the time frame, the present perfect 'have/has [participle]' tense is correct.
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Re: Usage of HAVE BEEN - Kaplan [#permalink]
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nusmavrik wrote:
hey Eli

Sorry to butt in. I found this topic interesting. In the second, "have shifted" ---> changes the meaning of the sentence.

tectonic plates have been shifted by earthquakes and other similar phenomena. ---> means that plates do not shift on their own. They were shifted by earthquakes.

tectonic plates have shifted by earthquakes and other similar phenomena. ---> This is illogical. How can plates shift on their own?

I may be wrong, but I think that's a fair difference between the two expressions.
Hi nusmavrik,

You're absolutely correct that the 'have been shifted by' and 'have shifted' are different tenses. However, this has nothing to do with the present perfect. In both cases, the 'have' correctly indicates an event that happens in the past, but whose time frame is unspecified. The difference between the other two is the difference between the active voice (plates shifted) and the passive (plates were shifted). This is a key, but independent, grammar concept.
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Re: Usage of HAVE BEEN - Kaplan [#permalink]
hey Eli

Since we are talking about "present perfect", I will like to know why is "having been" almost always wrong on gmat. Am I making a wrong assumption?
Thanks
mavrik

KapTeacherEli wrote:
nusmavrik wrote:
hey Eli

Sorry to butt in. I found this topic interesting. In the second, "have shifted" ---> changes the meaning of the sentence.

tectonic plates have been shifted by earthquakes and other similar phenomena. ---> means that plates do not shift on their own. They were shifted by earthquakes.

tectonic plates have shifted by earthquakes and other similar phenomena. ---> This is illogical. How can plates shift on their own?

I may be wrong, but I think that's a fair difference between the two expressions.
Hi nusmavrik,

You're absolutely correct that the 'have been shifted by' and 'have shifted' are different tenses. However, this has nothing to do with the present perfect. In both cases, the 'have' correctly indicates an event that happens in the past, but whose time frame is unspecified. The difference between the other two is the difference between the active voice (plates shifted) and the passive (plates were shifted). This is a key, but independent, grammar concept.
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Re: Usage of HAVE BEEN - Kaplan [#permalink]
having is progressive and been is progressive, they cant be used together
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Re: Usage of HAVE BEEN - Kaplan [#permalink]
421. In theory, international civil servants at the United Nations are prohibited from continuing to draw salaries from their own governments; in practice, however, some governments merely substitute living allowances for their employees’ paychecks, assigned by them to the United Nations.
(A) for their employees’ paychecks, assigned by them
(B) for the paychecks of their employees who have been assigned
(C) for the paychecks of their employees, having been assigned
(D) in place of their employees’ paychecks, for those of them assigned
(E) in place of the paychecks of their employees to have been assigned by them

the answer is clearly B. but can u explain me y 'have been' is used here?

Originally posted by roshanaslam on 16 Jun 2010, 02:16.
Last edited by roshanaslam on 16 Jun 2010, 02:46, edited 1 time in total.
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Re: Usage of HAVE BEEN - Kaplan [#permalink]
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ONce again, it's the passive voice; the base verb is "were assigned by the UN", a sentence in which the subject is employees but the actor is the UN, which makes the assignments. The 'have' tense indicates the time frame (unspecified past), and since we are now using the perfect tense, 'were' becomes the participle 'been'.
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Re: Usage of HAVE BEEN - Kaplan [#permalink]
Dear Eli,
kudos to you for demystifying perfect tense. :P

In the following sentence, the usage of "have been having" is correct as per a grammar site (englishpage).

Matt and Sarah have been having some difficulties in their relationship lately, so they have been going to a marriage counselor. I hope they work everything out.

but it is also given that:

REMEMBER Non-Continuous Verbs/ Mixed Verbs
It is important to remember that Non-Continuous Verbs cannot be used in any continuous tenses. Also, certain non-continuous meanings for Mixed Verbs cannot be used in continuous tenses. Instead of using Present Perfect Continuous with these verbs, you must use Present Perfect.

Examples:

Sam has been having his car for two years. Not Correct
Sam has had his car for two years. Correct

by this logic, isn't it better to say :

Matt and Sarah have had some difficulties in their relationship lately, so they have been going to a marriage counselor.

:dunnow

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Re: Usage of HAVE BEEN - Kaplan [#permalink]
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Hi Eli, can you please look at thr problem below

Fossils of the arm of a sloth found in Puerto Rico in
1991. and dated at 34 million years old, made it the
earliest known mammal of
the Greater Antilles Islands.
(A) sloth found in Puerto Rico in 1991, and dated at
34 million years old, made it the earliest known
mammal of
(B) sloth, that they found in Puerto Rico in 1991, has
been dated at 34 million years old, thus making
it the earliest mammal known on
(C) sloth that was found in Puerto Rico in 1991, was
dated at 34 million years old, making this the
earliest known mammal of
(D) sloth, found in Puerto Rico in 1991, have been
dated at 34 million years old, making the sloth
the earliest known mammal on
(E) sloth which, found in Puerto Ricoin 1991, was
dated at 34 million years old, made the sloth the
earliest known mammal of

The OA is D

now my question is, when I know the time when sloth was found I.e in 1991, why should I use had been here?
because as per your logic I can use had been only if I didnt know the time of finding of sloth..?? can someone help me with correct usage of had been/has been??
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Re: Usage of HAVE BEEN - Kaplan [#permalink]
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nikhil007 wrote:
Hi Eli, can you please look at thr problem below

Fossils of the arm of a sloth found in Puerto Rico in
1991. and dated at 34 million years old, made it the
earliest known mammal of
the Greater Antilles Islands.
(A) sloth found in Puerto Rico in 1991, and dated at
34 million years old, made it the earliest known
mammal of
(B) sloth, that they found in Puerto Rico in 1991, has
been dated at 34 million years old, thus making
it the earliest mammal known on
(C) sloth that was found in Puerto Rico in 1991, was
dated at 34 million years old, making this the
earliest known mammal of
(D) sloth, found in Puerto Rico in 1991, have been
dated at 34 million years old, making the sloth
the earliest known mammal on
(E) sloth which, found in Puerto Ricoin 1991, was
dated at 34 million years old, made the sloth the
earliest known mammal of

The OA is D

now my question is, when I know the time when sloth was found I.e in 1991, why should I use had been here?
because as per your logic I can use had been only if I didnt know the time of finding of sloth..?? can someone help me with correct usage of had been/has been??
"have been" is used for the dating process--we don't know when in the past the laboratory dating tests were completed!
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Re: Usage of HAVE BEEN - Kaplan [#permalink]
Here you can find all the Information regarding Having + participle https://english.lingolia.com/en/grammar/sentences/participle-clauses
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Re: Usage of HAVE BEEN - Kaplan [#permalink]
KapTeacherEli wrote:
Hi ykaiim,

In the first problem, 'have been' isn't a matter of continuing vs. not continuing; it's a matter of specified time versus unspecified time. In the first sentence, we are given a time cue to when they were motivated: the change was "recent," at the time of the amendments. Because we know when the even happens, even if not the exact time, the simple past is correct

In the second, we have no time cues whatsoever; we don't know if the earthquakes happened yesterday or 100 million years ago. When an English sentences discusses events in the past without specifying the time frame, the present perfect 'have/has [participle]' tense is correct.



Hi could explain then why in this question uses [ have been ] even though there is time reference in it or could you explain what am missing here. Thank you

This is an official Question. OA is E.

Rock samples taken from the remains of an asteroid about twice the size of the 6-mile-wide asteroid that eradicated the dinosaurs [u]has been dated to be 3.47 billion years old and thus is [/u]evidence of the earliest known asteroid impact on Earth.

(A) has been dated to be 3.47 billion years old and thus is
(B) has been dated at 3.47 billion years old and thus
(C) have been dated to be 3.47 billion years old and thus are
(D) have been dated as being 3.47 billion years old and thus
(E) have been dated at 3.47 billion years old and thus are



Link to the posted Question
https://gmatclub.com/forum/rock-samples ... 13736.html
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Re: Usage of HAVE BEEN - Kaplan [#permalink]
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mtk10 wrote:
KapTeacherEli wrote:
Hi ykaiim,

In the first problem, 'have been' isn't a matter of continuing vs. not continuing; it's a matter of specified time versus unspecified time. In the first sentence, we are given a time cue to when they were motivated: the change was "recent," at the time of the amendments. Because we know when the even happens, even if not the exact time, the simple past is correct

In the second, we have no time cues whatsoever; we don't know if the earthquakes happened yesterday or 100 million years ago. When an English sentences discusses events in the past without specifying the time frame, the present perfect 'have/has [participle]' tense is correct.



Hi could explain then why in this question uses [ have been ] even though there is time reference in it or could you explain what am missing here. Thank you

This is an official Question. OA is E.

Rock samples taken from the remains of an asteroid about twice the size of the 6-mile-wide asteroid that eradicated the dinosaurs [u]has been dated to be 3.47 billion years old and thus is [/u]evidence of the earliest known asteroid impact on Earth.

(A) has been dated to be 3.47 billion years old and thus is
(B) has been dated at 3.47 billion years old and thus
(C) have been dated to be 3.47 billion years old and thus are
(D) have been dated as being 3.47 billion years old and thus
(E) have been dated at 3.47 billion years old and thus are



Link to the posted Question
https://gmatclub.com/forum/rock-samples ... 13736.html



Here 3.47 billion years old is a characteristic of the rock and not a time reference. So use of have been is right here
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Re: Usage of HAVE BEEN - Kaplan [#permalink]
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