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# Psychologists conducted a series of experiments to test the

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Psychologists conducted a series of experiments to test the [#permalink]

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19 Aug 2009, 13:57
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Psychologists conducted a series of experiments to test the effect upon schoolchildren of violence in films. In the first experiment, grammar school children were shown a film that included scenes of a male teenager engaging in violent acts against others, such as punching, pushing, and kicking. During a free-play session following the film viewing, 42 percent of the children were observed to engage in one or more violent acts similar to those in the film. In a second experiment, a different group of children was shown a similar film featuring a female teenager. Only 14 percent of the children were observed behaving violently afterward. The psychologists concluded that children are more likely to imitate violent behavior on film when a male model is shown than when a female model is shown.
Which of the following, if true, would most seriously weaken the psychologists’ conclusion?
(A) In both experiments, the victims of the filmed violence included both males and females.
(B) In the second experiment, 28 percent of the children appeared upset during the viewing the violent film scenes.
(C) The first group included 19 male students and 20 female students; the second group included 20 male students and 21 female students.
(D) In the first group, 58 percent of the children appeared bored during the showing of the film, and 12 percent fell asleep.
(E) The percentage of children known to have discipline problems prior to the experiment was greater in the first group than in the second group.
[Reveal] Spoiler: OA

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Last edited by ankurgupta03 on 13 Apr 2014, 03:59, edited 1 time in total.
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19 Aug 2009, 20:18
IMO (E)
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19 Aug 2009, 23:16
another vote for (e) by POE
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19 Aug 2009, 23:46
+1 for E
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20 Aug 2009, 00:30
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one more vote for E. Here's my line of reasoning.

This stimulus falls into a common reasoning pattern in which the author concludes that because two groups of people, one that is supplied with a product whereas the other is not, present differences between them. The author attributes this differences to the product but does not consider that the differences might have already been there before the supply.

As a analogy consider a product that claims to make people loose weight. Consider two groups of people. People in group 1 weight less than people in group 2. People in group 1 take the product for 6 weeks after of which they weight less than people in group 2. The study concludes that the product caused that lost in weight. This is clearly flawed.

Regarding the stimulus

A) In both experiments, the victims of the filmed violence included both males and females.
This answer address the victims of the filmed that is not discussed in the stimulus. out
B) In the second experiment, 28 percent of the children appeared upset during the viewing the violent film scenes.
For this to weaken the argument you have to assume that when people view a film while they are upset the film does not influence them. Since we cannot make that assumption, we can rule B out.

(C) The first group included 19 male students and 20 female students; the second group included 20 male students and 21 female students.
The stimulus talks about percentages so raw numbers are useless
D) In the first group, 58 percent of the children appeared bored during the showing of the film, and 12 percent fell asleep.
That the children did not like the film does not weaken that the film influenced them.
(E) The percentage of children known to have discipline problems prior to the experiment was greater in the first group than in the second group.
This states that the groups were different prior to the experiment. Correct
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20 Aug 2009, 01:34
E.

Weakens the explanation [male vs female] by offering another explanation [1st group vs 2nd group] for the difference.
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28 Aug 2009, 14:03
E

The expriment was not good because the two groups were not alike.

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28 Aug 2009, 14:18
Straight E. If we have a biased group, then reasoning doesn't stand a chance.
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05 Sep 2009, 16:36
mikeCoolBoy wrote:
one more vote for E. Here's my line of reasoning.

This stimulus falls into a common reasoning pattern in which the author concludes that because two groups of people, one that is supplied with a product whereas the other is not, present differences between them. The author attributes this differences to the product but does not consider that the differences might have already been there before the supply.

As a analogy consider a product that claims to make people loose weight. Consider two groups of people. People in group 1 weight less than people in group 2. People in group 1 take the product for 6 weeks after of which they weight less than people in group 2. The study concludes that the product caused that lost in weight. This is clearly flawed.

Regarding the stimulus

A) In both experiments, the victims of the filmed violence included both males and females.
This answer address the victims of the filmed that is not discussed in the stimulus. out
B) In the second experiment, 28 percent of the children appeared upset during the viewing the violent film scenes.
For this to weaken the argument you have to assume that when people view a film while they are upset the film does not influence them. Since we cannot make that assumption, we can rule B out.

(C) The first group included 19 male students and 20 female students; the second group included 20 male students and 21 female students.
The stimulus talks about percentages so raw numbers are useless
D) In the first group, 58 percent of the children appeared bored during the showing of the film, and 12 percent fell asleep.
That the children did not like the film does not weaken that the film influenced them.
(E) The percentage of children known to have discipline problems prior to the experiment was greater in the first group than in the second group.
This states that the groups were different prior to the experiment. Correct

good explanations
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05 Sep 2009, 19:44
Thank you, I always try to do my best. That people sometimes like my explanations encourages me to keep posting.
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09 Sep 2009, 14:08
The point is that E implies that the 2 groups are different so the conclusion can not be made or that the discipline problems of the first groups also imply more violence among that group so is logical to conclude that group to be more violent?
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09 Sep 2009, 17:47
i think it implies the two groups are different and that is enough...because you cant use two different groups to argue the same thing...well to say the first group has more discipline problems also suggest they might have a higher chance of behaving violently...
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10 Sep 2009, 11:16
sprtng wrote:
i think it implies the two groups are different and that is enough...because you cant use two different groups to argue the same thing...well to say the first group has more discipline problems also suggest they might have a higher chance of behaving violently...

discipline problems-->more violence, for me is assuming to much
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10 Sep 2009, 11:46
noboru wrote:
sprtng wrote:
i think it implies the two groups are different and that is enough...because you cant use two different groups to argue the same thing...well to say the first group has more discipline problems also suggest they might have a higher chance of behaving violently...

discipline problems-->more violence, for me is assuming to much

what it's implying here is that these are two different groups. of course the reaction might be different.
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15 Dec 2010, 05:58
the initial contents of both groups were not equal, i.e. the first group has had health problems which does effect results of the expetiment.
Hence: E
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15 Dec 2010, 08:13
I also say E
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Re: Psychologists conducted a series of experiments to test the [#permalink]

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12 Apr 2014, 04:57
Causal conclusion always weak.

Conclusion assumes that the data presented is true and thus concludes that

that children are more likely to imitate violent behavior on film when a male model is shown than when a female model is shown.

However, if we give some other premise stating that the data is an outcome of some other cause then that will weaken the conclusion.

Hence (E) gives the alternate cause of the data presented and the cause is not film viewing.
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12 Apr 2014, 21:50
mikeCoolBoy wrote:
one more vote for E. Here's my line of reasoning.

This stimulus falls into a common reasoning pattern in which the author concludes that because two groups of people, one that is supplied with a product whereas the other is not, present differences between them. The author attributes this differences to the product but does not consider that the differences might have already been there before the supply.

As a analogy consider a product that claims to make people loose weight. Consider two groups of people. People in group 1 weight less than people in group 2. People in group 1 take the product for 6 weeks after of which they weight less than people in group 2. The study concludes that the product caused that lost in weight. This is clearly flawed.

Regarding the stimulus

A) In both experiments, the victims of the filmed violence included both males and females.
This answer address the victims of the filmed that is not discussed in the stimulus. out
B) In the second experiment, 28 percent of the children appeared upset during the viewing the violent film scenes.
For this to weaken the argument you have to assume that when people view a film while they are upset the film does not influence them. Since we cannot make that assumption, we can rule B out.
(C) The first group included 19 male students and 20 female students; the second group included 20 male students and 21 female students.
The stimulus talks about percentages so raw numbers are useless
D) In the first group, 58 percent of the children appeared bored during the showing of the film, and 12 percent fell asleep.
That the children did not like the film does not weaken that the film influenced them.
(E) The percentage of children known to have discipline problems prior to the experiment was greater in the first group than in the second group.
This states that the groups were different prior to the experiment. Correct

MY QUESTION FOR MIKE COOL BOY- ISNT 'A' BETTER AS AN ANSWER THAN 'E'-

conclusion says- The psychologists concluded that children are more likely to imitate violent behavior on film when a male model is shown than when a female model is shown

A) In both experiments, the victims of the filmed violence included both males and females. WEAKEN QUESTION CAN HAVE OUTSIDE INFO. BOTH EXPERIMENTS HAD VIOLENCE IN WHICH BOTH MALES AND FEMALES WERE VICTIMS. YET BOTH GROUPS BEHAVED DIFFERENTLY. THE REASON COULD' NT HAVE BEEN PRESENCE OF FEMALE AS THEY WERE PRESENT IN BOTH AND SUBJECTED TO VIOLENCE TOO. HENCE WEAKENS CONCLUSION WHICH SAYS----The psychologists concluded that children are more likely to imitate violent behavior on film when a male model is shown than when a female model is shown.

(E) The percentage of children known to have discipline problems prior to the experiment was greater in the first group than in the second group. THE CHILDREN OF FIRST GROUP WERE MORE INDISCILPLINED( MAYBE JUST 1% MORE)- NOT VIOLENT. SHELL GAME. INDISCIPLINED DOESNT MEAN VIOLENT. BUT THE STATISTICS OF THE RESULT WERE STARCKINGLY DIFFERENT. IT DOESNT WEAKEN THE CONCLUSION THAT VIOLENCE IN THE MOVIE CAUSED THEIR BEHAVIOUR , AS THEY DID., AFTER THE EXPERIMENT.

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12 Apr 2014, 22:13
semwal wrote:
MY QUESTION FOR MIKE COOL BOY- ISNT 'A' BETTER AS AN ANSWER THAN 'E'-

A) In both experiments, the victims of the filmed violence included both males and females. WEAKEN QUESTION CAN HAVE OUTSIDE INFO. BOTH EXPERIMENTS HAD VIOLENCE IN WHICH BOTH MALES AND FEMALES WERE VICTIMS. YET BOTH GROUPS BEHAVED DIFFERENTLY. THE REASON COULD' NT HAVE BEEN PRESENCE OF FEMALE AS THEY WERE PRESENT IN BOTH AND SUBJECTED TO VIOLENCE TOO. HENCE WEAKENS CONCLUSION.

(E) The percentage of children known to have discipline problems prior to the experiment was greater in the first group than in the second group. THE CHILDREN OF FIRST GROUP WERE MORE INDISCILPLINED( MAYBE JUST 1% MORE)- NOT VIOLENT. SHELL GAME. INDISCIPLINED DOESNT MEAN VIOLENT. BUT THE STATISTICS OF THE RESULT WERE STARCKINGLY DIFFERENT. IT DOESNT WEAKEN THE CONCLUSION THAT VIOLENCE IN THE MOVIE CAUSED THEIR BEHAVIOUR , AS THEY DID., AFTER THE EXPERIMENT.

Just saying males and females present doesn't necessarily mean they're present in equal number.

WHAT IF GROUP A HAD 1 FEMALE AND 100 MALES, AND GROUP B HAD 100 FEMALES AND 1 MALE?

Doesn't this ratio kinda strengthen the argument?

Another point, 'THE REASON COULD' NT HAVE BEEN PRESENCE OF FEMALE AS THEY WERE PRESENT IN BOTH AND SUBJECTED TO VIOLENCE TOO' -- it's nowhere mentioned that females were the subject of violence. the subjects have not been mentioned.

now it's mentioned that 'violent acts against others, such as punching, pushing, and kicking' and the indiscipline problems associated with children are generally the ones mentioned.

Now A says 'In both experiments, the victims of the filmed violence included both males and females.'

Which essentially means that 'hey if you thought that only males were present in the groups then wait! lemme tell you that In both experiments, the victims of the filmed violence included both males and females'

This is like trying to strengthen the argument by saying that both were present there so there's gotta be some other reason that males and females being present.
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13 Apr 2014, 01:37
gauravkaushik8591 wrote:
semwal wrote:
MY QUESTION FOR MIKE COOL BOY- ISNT 'A' BETTER AS AN ANSWER THAN 'E'-

A) In both experiments, the victims of the filmed violence included both males and females. WEAKEN QUESTION CAN HAVE OUTSIDE INFO. BOTH EXPERIMENTS HAD VIOLENCE IN WHICH BOTH MALES AND FEMALES WERE VICTIMS. YET BOTH GROUPS BEHAVED DIFFERENTLY. THE REASON COULD' NT HAVE BEEN PRESENCE OF FEMALE AS THEY WERE PRESENT IN BOTH AND SUBJECTED TO VIOLENCE TOO. HENCE WEAKENS CONCLUSION.

(E) The percentage of children known to have discipline problems prior to the experiment was greater in the first group than in the second group. THE CHILDREN OF FIRST GROUP WERE MORE INDISCILPLINED( MAYBE JUST 1% MORE)- NOT VIOLENT. SHELL GAME. INDISCIPLINED DOESNT MEAN VIOLENT. BUT THE STATISTICS OF THE RESULT WERE STARCKINGLY DIFFERENT. IT DOESNT WEAKEN THE CONCLUSION THAT VIOLENCE IN THE MOVIE CAUSED THEIR BEHAVIOUR , AS THEY DID., AFTER THE EXPERIMENT.

Just saying males and females present doesn't necessarily mean they're present in equal number.

WHAT IF GROUP A HAD 1 FEMALE AND 100 MALES, AND GROUP B HAD 100 FEMALES AND 1 MALE?

Doesn't this ratio kinda strengthen the argument?

Another point, 'THE REASON COULD' NT HAVE BEEN PRESENCE OF FEMALE AS THEY WERE PRESENT IN BOTH AND SUBJECTED TO VIOLENCE TOO' -- it's nowhere mentioned that females were the subject of violence. the subjects have not been mentioned.

now it's mentioned that 'violent acts against others, such as punching, pushing, and kicking' and the indiscipline problems associated with children are generally the ones mentioned.

Now A says 'In both experiments, the victims of the filmed violence included both males and females.'

Which essentially means that 'hey if you thought that only males were present in the groups then wait! lemme tell you that In both experiments, the victims of the filmed violence included both males and females'

This is like trying to strengthen the argument by saying that both were present there so there's gotta be some other reason that males and females being present.

ratio of male to female doesnt matter TILL BOTH MALE AND FEMALE ARE PRESENT. YES, YOU COULD SAY THAT SINCE THE STIMULUS GIVES "similar film featuring a female teenager", IN THE SECOND FILM A FEMALE TEENAGER WAS INVOLVED IN VIOLENCE. SO VIOLENCE WAS COMMON TO BOTH FILMS- HOWEVER THE accused either a male or female. and this difference in MODEL SEX led to the difference. IF THAT BE SO, THAN ONLY "E" COULD BE THE CORRECT ANSWER....BRINGING OUT DIFFERENCE IN THE TWO SAMPLES.
Re: Psychologists conducted   [#permalink] 13 Apr 2014, 01:37

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