carcass wrote:
A list of the fifteen operas most frequently performed in recent times includes no works by the nineteenth- century German composer Richard Wagner. Although music producers tend to produce what audiences want, relative infrequency of performance probably does not indicate lack of popularity in Wagner's case, since Wagner's operas are notoriously expensive to perform on stage.
Which of the following, if true, most strongly supports the conclusion of the argument above?
(A)The list of most frequently performed operas does not include operas produced by small amateur groups.
(B)Some opera companies are backed by patrons who are willing to commit large sums of money in order to enjoy lavish productions.
(C)All of the fifteen most frequently performed operas of recent times are works that have been popular for at least 75 years.
(D)More recordings have been produced recently of the works of Wagner than of the works of any other composer of opera.
(E)Operatic works of all kinds have been increasing in popularity in recent years.
I searched the source of this question, and see that this one is from GRE.
A is clearly wrong since it weakens the argument.
B seems close. However, if B is true, then why aren't Wagner's operas performed? It could be concluded that Wagner's operas aren't popular as the argument said. B weakends the argument.
C, E contribute nothing to the argument.
D is left. However, D doesn't directly support the argument that Wagner's operas are really popular and expensive to perform. D just suggests that Wagner's operas are recently performed more frequently than those of other composer. It slightly supports the argument, but it is weak.
I think this question isn't good one.