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QOTD: Heavy commitment by an executive to a course of action

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Re: QOTD: Heavy commitment by an executive to a course of action  [#permalink]

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New post 10 Aug 2017, 04:32
Heavy commitment by an executive to a course of action, especially if it has worked well in the past, makes it likely to miss signs of incipient trouble or misinterpret them when they do appear.

A. Heavy commitment by an executive to a course of action, especially ifit<could refer to both “course of action” and “commitment”> has worked well in the past, makes it<No antecedent> likely to miss signs of incipient trouble or misinterpret them when they do appear.

B. An executive who is heavily committed to a course of action, especially one that worked well in the past, makes missing signs of incipient trouble or misinterpreting ones likely when they do appear.

C. An executive who is heavily committed to a course of action is likely to miss or misinterpret signs of incipient trouble when they do appear, especially if ithas worked well in the past.

D. Executives’ being heavily committed to a course of action, especially if it has worked well in the past, makes them likely to miss signs of incipient trouble or misinterpreting them when they do appear.

E. Being heavily committed to a course of action, especially one that has worked well in the past, is likely to make an executive miss signs of incipient trouble or misinterpret them when they do appear.
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Re: QOTD: Heavy commitment by an executive to a course of action  [#permalink]

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New post 31 Aug 2017, 12:12
Heavy commitment by an executive to a course of action, especially if it has worked well in the past, makes it likely to miss signs of incipient trouble or misinterpret them when they do appear.

A. Heavy commitment by an executive to a course of action, especially if it has worked well in the past, makes it likely to miss signs of incipient trouble or misinterpret them when they do appear.
- what does "it" (after the comma) refer to?

B. An executive who is heavily committed to a course of action, especially one that worked well in the past, makes missing signs of incipient trouble or misinterpreting ones likely when they do appear.
- Makes no sense. "makes missing signs of incipient trouble" is modifying who or describing what?

C. An executive who is heavily committed to a course of action is likely to miss or misinterpret signs of incipient trouble when they do appear, especially if it has worked well in the past.
- what does "it" (after the comma) refer to?

D. Executives’ being heavily committed to a course of action, especially if it has worked well in the past, makes them likely to miss signs of incipient trouble or misinterpreting them when they do appear.
- "Executives' being"? This makes no sense. Out.

E. Being heavily committed to a course of action, especially one that has worked well in the past, is likely to make an executive miss signs of incipient trouble or misinterpret them when they do appear.- Although I HATED "Being"...the rest of the sentence is perfect.

For me, key takeaway here is the idea that we should make clear that THE EXECUTIVE (can) miss signs of trouble or misinterpret them. A lot of A/C have ambiguous pronouns (i.e. "it").

Kudos please if you find helpful :)
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Re: QOTD: Heavy commitment by an executive to a course of action  [#permalink]

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New post 02 Nov 2017, 15:14
A. Heavy commitment by an executive to a course of action, especially if it has worked well in the past, makes it likely to miss signs of incipient trouble or misinterpret them when they do appear. -"it" is an ambiguous pronoun in both instances… is it referring to the heavy commitment, the executive, or the course of action? “them” and “they” also seem to be confusing/ambiguous pronouns.

B. An executive who is heavily committed to a course of action, especially one that worked well in the past, makes missing signs of incipient trouble or misinterpreting ones likely when they do appear. - “an executive… makes missing signs” sounds weird. I am suspicious because it’s supposed to be the act of being committed to a course of action that is making missing signs/misinterpreting signs likely, not an executive.

C. An executive who is heavily committed to a course of action is likely to miss or misinterpret signs of incipient trouble when they do appear, especially if it has worked well in the past. - the modifier “especially if it has worked well in the past” is too far away from “course of action”.

D. Executives’ being heavily committed to a course of action, especially if it has worked well in the past, makes them likely to miss signs of incipient trouble or misinterpreting them when they do appear. - “Executives’ being heavily committed” is wrong

E. Being heavily committed to a course of action, especially one that has worked well in the past, is likely to make an executive miss signs of incipient trouble or misinterpret them when they do appear. - looks good
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Re: QOTD: Heavy commitment by an executive to a course of action  [#permalink]

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New post 02 Nov 2017, 15:33
IWilWin wrote:
Hi Experts,

Could you please point out my gap in understanding the following statement :

E. Being heavily committed to a course of action, especially one that has worked well in the past, is likely to make an executive miss signs of incipient trouble or misinterpret them when they do appear.

I think there is SV error with

'an executive' ... miss and
'an executive' ... misinterpret

Could you please explain.



Hello IWilWin,

I am not sure if you still have this doubt. Here is the explanation anyway. :-)

Following is the "expanded" version of the correct answer Choice E:

E. Being heavily committed to a course of action, especially one that has worked well in the past, is likely to make an executive to miss signs of incipient trouble or to misinterpret them when they do appear.


Please note that neither an executive is a subject not miss and misinterpret verbs in this answer choice. In fact, an executive is the object of the verb phrase is likely to make. And objects do not take verbs.

Again the words miss and misinterpret are not verbs because they are preceded by the word to that remains understood in the original version of the correct answer choice.

This omission is not uncommon and is employed when the meaning is still clear with the omission. For example:

My friend helped me (to) finish the project in time.


And I am sure you know it that to verb phrases are NEVER verbs.


Hope this helps. :-)
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Re: QOTD: Heavy commitment by an executive to a course of action  [#permalink]

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New post 25 Nov 2017, 13:36
souvik101990 wrote:

Verbal Question of The Day: Day 11: Sentence Correction


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Heavy commitment by an executive to a course of action, especially if it has worked well in the past, makes it likely to miss signs of incipient trouble or misinterpret them when they do appear.

A. Heavy commitment by an executive to a course of action, especially if it has worked well in the past, makes it likely to miss signs of incipient trouble or misinterpret them when they do appear.

B. An executive who is heavily committed to a course of action, especially one that worked well in the past, makes missing signs of incipient trouble or misinterpreting ones likely when they do appear.

C. An executive who is heavily committed to a course of action is likely to miss or misinterpret signs of incipient trouble when they do appear, especially if it has worked well in the past.

D. Executives’ being heavily committed to a course of action, especially if it has worked well in the past, makes them likely to miss signs of incipient trouble or misinterpreting them when they do appear.

E. Being heavily committed to a course of action, especially one that has worked well in the past, is likely to make an executive miss signs of incipient trouble or misinterpret them when they do appear.


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Re: QOTD: Heavy commitment by an executive to a course of action  [#permalink]

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New post 29 Nov 2017, 00:14
souvik101990 wrote:

Verbal Question of The Day: Day 11: Sentence Correction


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Heavy commitment by an executive to a course of action, especially if it has worked well in the past, makes it likely to miss signs of incipient trouble or misinterpret them when they do appear.

A. Heavy commitment by an executive to a course of action, especially if it has worked well in the past, makes it likely to miss signs of incipient trouble or misinterpret them when they do appear.

B. An executive who is heavily committed to a course of action, especially one that worked well in the past, makes missing signs of incipient trouble or misinterpreting ones likely when they do appear.

C. An executive who is heavily committed to a course of action is likely to miss or misinterpret signs of incipient trouble when they do appear, especially if it has worked well in the past.

D. Executives’ being heavily committed to a course of action, especially if it has worked well in the past, makes them likely to miss signs of incipient trouble or misinterpreting them when they do appear.

E. Being heavily committed to a course of action, especially one that has worked well in the past, is likely to make an executive miss signs of incipient trouble or misinterpret them when they do appear.


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daagh i need your explanation on this question i really feel e is not correct because of various reasons:-
1 use of being.
2 being heavily committed to... ,here must be the persong who is heavily committed executive
3.verb is likely belongs to which subject i didn't get it please explain
thank you in advance
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New post 29 Nov 2017, 07:19
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Please visit the link below; all your doubts will be cleared.

https://www.manhattanprep.com/gmat/foru ... t3173.html
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Re: QOTD: Heavy commitment by an executive to a course of action  [#permalink]

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New post 07 Dec 2017, 14:34
GMATNinja wrote:
This is one of the OG questions that causes the most trouble, partly because a lot of GMAT test-takers have an (occasionally incorrect) impulse to automatically eliminate any answer choice with the word "being."

But we'll get to that. Let's take these buggers in order:

Quote:
D. Executives’ being heavily committed to a course of action, especially if it has worked well in the past, makes them likely to miss signs of incipient trouble or misinterpreting them when they do appear.


"Them" is trying to refer back to a possessive pronoun, "executives'", and that's wrong on the GMAT. Non-possessive pronouns (they, them, he, she, it) can't refer back to possessive nouns on the GMAT. So (D) is gone.

Quote:
E. Being heavily committed to a course of action, especially one that has worked well in the past, is likely to make an executive miss signs of incipient trouble or misinterpret them when they do appear.


There are lots of pronoun issues in the other answer choices, but we're all good with (E): the ambiguous "it" we saw in (C) isn't here at all, and "them" and "they" very clearly refer to "signs of incipient trouble." The subject "being heavily committed to a course of action" works nicely with the main verb phrase ("is likely to make an executive miss signs of trouble..."), so (E) is an upgrade from (B).

That leaves "being" as the only reasonable objection to (E). But "being" is absolutely fine here: it's just a noun, also known as a gerund in this case. "Being" is no different than any other gerund. So (E) is our answer.

Please see last Monday's Topic of the Week for more on gerunds and other "-ing" words on the GMAT: https://gmatclub.com/forum/experts-topi ... 39780.html.


GMATNinja- thank you for your response. Just to clarify: in D, the possessive part is also just wrong even ignoring that "them" can't refer to it. As in, there doesn't appear to be anything that should be possessive, so it's just wrong on its own, right? thanks!
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Re: QOTD: Heavy commitment by an executive to a course of action  [#permalink]

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New post 20 Dec 2017, 11:45
brandon7 wrote:
GMATNinja- thank you for your response. Just to clarify: in D, the possessive part is also just wrong even ignoring that "them" can't refer to it. As in, there doesn't appear to be anything that should be possessive, so it's just wrong on its own, right? thanks!

Quote:
D. Executives’ being heavily committed to a course of action, especially if it has worked well in the past, makes them likely to miss signs of incipient trouble or misinterpreting them when they do appear.

Hm, good question. I think I agree that the possessive is just plain wrong here, because it doesn't really make sense to for executives (or anybody else!) to possess "being heavily committed" -- I can't think of a case in which it would be appropriate to have a possessive in front of a gerund or participle, and it certainly doesn't work in this particular case. But if this said "executives' commitment to a course of action...", I'd be OK with it -- there's no problem with possessing the noun "commitment."

I hope this helps!
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QOTD: Heavy commitment by an executive to a course of action  [#permalink]

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New post 24 Mar 2018, 22:53
D. Executives’ being heavily committed to a course of action, especially if it has worked well in the past, makes them likely to miss signs of incipient trouble or misinterpreting them when they do appear.

is it the correct use of "Being" in option "D"....????
Plzzz explain.. :)
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New post 03 Apr 2018, 13:11
sajon wrote:
D. Executives’ being heavily committed to a course of action, especially if it has worked well in the past, makes them likely to miss signs of incipient trouble or misinterpreting them when they do appear.

is it the correct use of "Being" in option "D"....????
Plzzz explain.. :)




Hello sajon,

I am not sure if your doubt still persists. Here is the answer nonetheless. :-)


In Choice D, being has been used as a subject that takes the verb makes. This usage of being as a subject is considered correct on GMAT SC.

We see the same usage of being in the correct answer choice E too.


Hope this helps. :-)
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QOTD: Heavy commitment by an executive to a course of action  [#permalink]

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New post 21 May 2018, 06:32
Quote:
Heavy commitment by an executive to a course of action, especially if it has worked well in the past, makes it likely to miss signs of incipient trouble or misinterpret them when they do appear.


A. Heavy commitment by an executive to a course of action, especially if it has worked well in the past, makes it likely to miss signs of incipient trouble or misinterpret them when they do appear. - Incorrect.

B. An executive who is heavily committed to a course of action, especially one that worked well in the past, makes missing signs of incipient trouble or misinterpreting ones likely when they do appear. - Incorrect.

C. An executive who is heavily committed to a course of action is likely to miss or misinterpret signs of incipient trouble when they do appear, especially if it has worked well in the past. - Incorrect.

D. Executives’ being heavily committed to a course of action, especially if it has worked well in the past, makes them likely to miss signs of incipient trouble or misinterpreting them when they do appear. - Incorrect.

E. Being heavily committed to a course of action, especially one that has worked well in the past, is likely to make an executive miss signs of incipient trouble or misinterpret them when they do appear. - Correct.

Answer: (E).
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QOTD: Heavy commitment by an executive to a course of action  [#permalink]

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New post 12 Jun 2018, 21:28
Heavy commitment by an executive to a course of action, especially if it has worked well in the past, makes it likely to miss signs of incipient trouble or misinterpret them when they do appear.
A. Heavy commitment by an executive to a course of action, especially if it has worked well in the past, makes it likely to miss signs of incipient trouble or misinterpret them when they do appear.- WRONG- Pronoun Ambiguity – The second “it” can refer back to “a course of action” or “heavy Commitment”
B. An executive who is heavily committed to a course of action, especially one that worked well in the past, makes missing signs of incipient trouble or misinterpreting ones likely when they do appear. –Tense Error – Here we need “has” to denote the lingering impact of something that worked in the past- past tense (worked) isn’t used correctly.
C. An executive who is heavily committed to a course of action is likely to miss or misinterpret signs of incipient trouble when they do appear, especially if it has worked well in the past.- WRONG- Though this is subtle. I would have loved to keep this as my answer but as we know pronoun (it) refers to nearest noun, which is “trouble” not intended “a course” of action. This makes it ambiguous pronoun reference.
D. Executives’ being heavily committed to a course of action, especially if it has worked well in the past, makes them likely to miss signs of incipient trouble or misinterpreting them when they do appear. – WRONG – “Them” is being used for possessive noun (Executives’ ), which is outrightly wrong.
E. Being heavily committed to a course of action, especially one that has worked well in the past, is likely to make an executive miss signs of incipient trouble or misinterpret them when they do appear. CORRECT
1. “has” is used to show the lingering impact of some past action – RIGHT
2. “them” is referring back to the closest noun “signs of incipient trouble”.
No error
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Re: QOTD: Heavy commitment by an executive to a course of action  [#permalink]

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New post 13 Jun 2018, 05:10
GMATNinja wrote:
This is one of the OG questions that causes the most trouble, partly because a lot of GMAT test-takers have an (occasionally incorrect) impulse to automatically eliminate any answer choice with the word "being."

But we'll get to that. Let's take these buggers in order:

Quote:
A. Heavy commitment by an executive to a course of action, especially if it has worked well in the past, makes it likely to miss signs of incipient trouble or misinterpret them when they do appear.


That second "it" is the big problem here: "makes it likely to miss signs of incipient trouble..." I suppose that "it" could refer to "heavy commitment" or "course of action", but neither of those would make any sense. (A) is gone.

Quote:
B. An executive who is heavily committed to a course of action, especially one that worked well in the past, makes missing signs of incipient trouble or misinterpreting ones likely when they do appear.


This is fairly subtle, but the subject doesn't make a whole lot of sense with the main verb here. "An executive... makes missing signs of incipient trouble... likely when they do appear." The pronoun "they" is OK, but it doesn't make logical sense to say that "an executive makes missing signs of trouble likely..." Also, I see no good reason use "ones" here -- in theory, "ones" would refer to very specific signs of trouble, and there's no good reason to use "ones" when a simple "them" would work. (B) is gone.

Quote:
C. An executive who is heavily committed to a course of action is likely to miss or misinterpret signs of incipient trouble when they do appear, especially if it has worked well in the past.


The "it" is a problem here: "it" generally refers to the nearest singular noun. In this case, "it" would seem to refer to "trouble," and that doesn't make a whole lot of sense. "Course of action" would work, but that's much farther back in the sentence.

To be fair, ambiguous pronouns aren't always wrong on the GMAT, so if you want to be conservative, you could keep (C) for now. But as we'll see in a moment, (E) is a much better option.

Quote:
D. Executives’ being heavily committed to a course of action, especially if it has worked well in the past, makes them likely to miss signs of incipient trouble or misinterpreting them when they do appear.


"Them" is trying to refer back to a possessive pronoun, "executives'", and that's wrong on the GMAT. Non-possessive pronouns (they, them, he, she, it) can't refer back to possessive nouns on the GMAT. So (D) is gone.

Quote:
E. Being heavily committed to a course of action, especially one that has worked well in the past, is likely to make an executive miss signs of incipient trouble or misinterpret them when they do appear.


There are lots of pronoun issues in the other answer choices, but we're all good with (E): the ambiguous "it" we saw in (C) isn't here at all, and "them" and "they" very clearly refer to "signs of incipient trouble." The subject "being heavily committed to a course of action" works nicely with the main verb phrase ("is likely to make an executive miss signs of trouble..."), so (E) is an upgrade from (B).

That leaves "being" as the only reasonable objection to (E). But "being" is absolutely fine here: it's just a noun, also known as a gerund in this case. "Being" is no different than any other gerund. So (E) is our answer.

Please see last Monday's Topic of the Week for more on gerunds and other "-ing" words on the GMAT: https://gmatclub.com/forum/experts-topi ... 39780.html.



Hi GMATNinja

I came across one of your post where you have mentioned the usage of a special pronoun 'it' with respect to its 'standalone' usage.
PFB link:

https://www.manhattanprep.com/gmat/foru ... tml#p49622

Please help me to understand the reference of "That second "it" is the big problem here: "makes it likely to miss signs of incipient trouble..." I suppose that "it" could refer to "heavy commitment" or "course of action", but neither of those would make any sense. (A) is gone" with respect to "The rain made it + quite challenging + to drive on the freeway".
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Re: QOTD: Heavy commitment by an executive to a course of action  [#permalink]

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New post 15 Jun 2018, 18:34
raunakme19 wrote:
Hi GMATNinja

I came across one of your post where you have mentioned the usage of a special pronoun 'it' with respect to its 'standalone' usage.
PFB link:

https://www.manhattanprep.com/gmat/foru ... tml#p49622

Please help me to understand the reference of "That second "it" is the big problem here: "makes it likely to miss signs of incipient trouble..." I suppose that "it" could refer to "heavy commitment" or "course of action", but neither of those would make any sense. (A) is gone" with respect to "The rain made it + quite challenging + to drive on the freeway".

Hm, that link didn't come through -- and I've never posted anything on the Manhattan website. Maybe you're confusing me with somebody else? Ron Purewal, maybe? We do have similar GMAT scores...?

"Standalone" pronouns do exist, but they're pretty darned rare on the GMAT. "Standalone" pronouns have no referent, so they're also called non-referential pronouns, if you like jargon.

The thing is, standalone pronouns only make sense in very limited circumstances. Your example is fine: "The rain made it challenging to drive on the freeway." We're not saying that the rain is challenging for anybody in particular. The rain just "makes it challenging" in general -- not for any particular person or group of people.

That's not what's happening in this question at all: "Heavy commitment by an executive to a course of action... makes it likely to miss signs of incipient trouble..." In this case, SOMEBODY has to actually miss the signs of incipient trouble, or else the sentence makes no sense. Logically, the "heavy commitment to a course of action" makes EXECUTIVES more likely to miss signs of incipient trouble. The pronoun actually needs a referent -- otherwise, the phrase doesn't convey the intended meaning.

So yes, it's true that some pronouns don't actually need a referent. But unless you're super-advanced in SC already, I don't recommend thinking about them at all. I can only think of one or two official SC questions that include "standalone" or "non-referential" pronouns, so they're not a major issue. But if you start to imagine that "normal" pronouns don't actually need a referent, that can cause all sorts of problems. More than 99% of pronouns on the GMAT require a referent, and the exceptions aren't worth worrying about too much.

I hope this helps!
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Re: QOTD: Heavy commitment by an executive to a course of action  [#permalink]

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New post 19 Jun 2018, 11:35
Video explanation :

https://gmat.magoosh.com/forum/3495-hea ... utive-to-a
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It seems Kudos button not working correctly with my posts..

Your help required friend!! May see if it works for you :-)

Re: QOTD: Heavy commitment by an executive to a course of action &nbs [#permalink] 19 Jun 2018, 11:35

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