VeritasPrepKarishma wrote:
souvik101990 wrote:
Criminals released from prison on parole have generally been put under routine supervision. A recent program has allowed criminals to leave prison early under intensive supervision; they must obey curfews and in some cases they must be electronically monitored. The percentage of released criminals arrested while under supervision is the same for intensive supervision as for routine supervision, so intensive supervision is no more effective than routine supervision in preventing criminals from committing additional crimes.
Which one of the following is an assumption on which the argument relies?
(A) The criminals under intensive supervision, but not those under routine supervision, were required to work or attend school during their supervision period.
(B) All of the criminals who were arrested while under routine supervision had been in prison more than once before being paroled and put under supervision.
(C) The proportion of arrests to crimes committed was not significantly higher for criminals under intensive supervision than those under routine supervision.
(D) Of the criminals arrested while under intensive supervision, some would not have committed crimes if they had been under routine supervision.
(E) The number of criminals put under routine supervision was not significantly greater than the number of criminals put under intensive supervision.
Responding to a pm:
Premises:
Criminals released on parole are put under routine supervision.
A recent program allows criminals to leave prison early under intensive supervision;
The percentage of re-arrests is same for intensive supervision as well as for routine supervision.
Conclusion:
intensive supervision is no more effective than routine supervision in
preventing criminals from committing additional crimes
The key word is highlighted. We are saying that since both types of supervision result in the same percentage of re-arrests, it means both have the same success rate in preventing crimes. There is a gap in this logic. Based on the number of re-arrests (which is same for both),
we are assuming the number of crimes committed are the same under both types of supervision. What if, number of crimes committed is much higher under routine supervision but re-arrests are rarer? Then can we say that both methods are equally effective in preventing crimes? No. So option (C) is an assumption. It says that the proportion of arrests to crimes committed was similar in both.
On the other hand, (E) doesn't affect our argument. The number put under each is of no consequence to us. We are comparing percentages. Since their percentages are similar, we can certainly compare their effectiveness even if the number of criminals is different.
Answer (C)
VeritasPrepKarishma,
Just need a bit of clarity on the highlighted portion: It says that we are assuming that no. of crimes committed are same under both types of supervision.
Please correct me, if i am wrong but are we not assuming that the PROPORTION of re-arrests to crimes committed is same for both types of supervision.
\(Re-arrests/Crimes Committed\) for Intense Supervision = \(Re-arrests/Crimes Committed\) for Routine Supervision
We are given that the Percentage of re-arrests is same under both types of supervision but that doesn't mean that the number of re-arrests is same, right?
And by that logic, we can conclude that the two ratios must be equal, hence the same proportion but not necessarily have the same numbers.
For ex: re-arrests to no. of crimes committed proportion for both routine and intense supervision respectively-:
\(3/5 = 6/10\)
So, here the number of crimes committed are different, yet the two ratios are equal.
Please clarify.
Thank you.