kalrac wrote:
Researchers studying the spread of the Black Plague in sixteenth-century England claim that certain people survived the epidemic because they carried a genetic mutation, known as Delta-32, that is known to prevent the bacteria that causes the Plague from overtaking the immune system. To support this hypothesis, the researchers tested the direct descendants of the residents of an English town where an unusually large proportion of people survived the Plague. More than half of these descendants tested positive for the mutation Delta-32, a figure nearly three times higher than that found in other locations.
The researchers' hypothesis is based on which of the following assumptions?
a) Delta-32 does not prevent a carrier from contracting any disease other than the Plague.
b) The Plague is not similar to other diseases caused by bacteria.
c)Delta-32 did not exist in its current form until the sixteenth century.
d)No one who tested positive for Delta-32 has ever contracted a disease caused by bacteria.
e)The Plague does not cause genetic mutations such as Delta-32.
Please post the answers with explanations.
Got this question on one of
MGMAT CATs. Even after reviewing the problem and reading some posts regarding this I can still not convince myself that E can be the right answer. Here is my submission regarding it -
To support this hypothesis, the researchers tested the direct descendants of the residents of an English town
where an unusually large proportion of people survived the Plague. More than half of these descendants tested positive for the mutation Delta-32,
a figure nearly three times higher than that found in other locations.As highlighted these two parts in the argument tell us two things
1. This town had an unusually large number of people who survived the Plague.
2. More than half of the descendants tested positive for DElta-32 in this town, a number three times as high as other locations
Now E says - The Plague does not cause genetic mutations such as Delta-32.
This cannot be assumed as per the argument. Had plague caused the mutations the
proportion of people having Delta-32 would have been much higher in other locations where the plague was much more widespread than in this town which had fewer instances of plague.In fact in this question I feel no answer is correct.
Can some experts enlighten me on this