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Chets asked if 4+sqrt(5)*sqrt(3) = 1/(4-sqrt(5)*sqrt(3)) can be extrapolated into a broad generalization. No, it can't be!

Here's why.

Consider an expression \(1/(a-\sqrt{bc})\) [modeled on 1/(4-sqrt(5)*sqrt(3)) ] Multiplying Numerator and Denominator with \((a+ \sqrt{bc})\), we get \((a+ \sqrt{bc})/(a^2-bc)\)

So, the reason why 1/(4-sqrt(5)*sqrt(3) got simplified into 4+sqrt(5)*sqrt(3) was because the Denominator of the above expression is equal to 1 in this particular case (a=4, b=5, c=3. So,\(a^2-bc = 4^2-5*3 = 1\))
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Thanks to another GMAT Club member, I have just discovered this valuable topic, yet it had no discussion for over a year. I am now bumping it up - doing my job. I think you may find it valuable (esp those replies with Kudos).

Want to see all other topics I dig out? Follow me (click follow button on profile). You will receive a summary of all topics I bump in your profile area as well as via email.
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