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# The Achaemenid empire of Persia reached the Indus Valley in

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The Achaemenid empire of Persia reached the Indus Valley in [#permalink]

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25 Oct 2005, 20:32
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The Achaemenid empire of Persia reached the Indus Valley in fifth century B.C., bringing the Aramaic script with it, from which was derived both northern and southern Indian alphabets.

a)
b) the Aramaic script with it, and from which deriving both the northern and the
c) with it the Aramaic script, from which derive both the northern and the
d) with it the Aramaic script, from which derives both the northern and
e) with it the Aramaic script, and deriving from it both the northern and the
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25 Oct 2005, 20:42
E it is.

A and B are wrong as which has no clear reference!
C and D are wrong as derive, derives does not help with the parallelism

E is correct coz which has a clear reference - the aramaic script and deriving parallels with bringing!
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25 Oct 2005, 21:44
Just that it sounds nice..No explanations i have

Appreciate anyone who can explain
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Re: SC - Persia [#permalink]

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25 Oct 2005, 21:54
rigger wrote:
The Achaemenid empire of Persia reached the Indus Valley in fifth century B.C., bringing the Aramaic script with it, from which was derived both northern and southern Indian alphabets.
a)
b) the Aramaic script with it, and from which deriving both the northern and the
c) with it the Aramaic script, from which derive both the northern and the
d) with it the Aramaic script, from which derives both the northern and
e) with it the Aramaic script, and deriving from it both the northern and the

Sorry, just detected that A is incorrect with "was" .
E is ok, I mean it has fewer evils than other choices.
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25 Oct 2005, 22:09
I vote for (C).

A) "both" is plural, and so "was" is not appropriate.

B) "and from which deriving" is awakard, and "which" has vague reference.

C) The fact that the Indian alphabets are derived from the Aramaic script is a concrete, unchangeable fact, and so "derive" is ok.

D) "both" is plural, and so "derives" is not appropriate.

E) The first "it" is the Persian empire, and the second "it" is the Aramaic script. These two "it"s are confusing.
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25 Oct 2005, 22:21
gamjatang wrote:
I vote for (C).

E) The first "it" is the Persian empire, and the second "it" is the Aramaic script. These two "it"s are confusing.

Yeah, I agree with you in this point. I'm just confused whether things without senses can derive themselves from something else?! ...I mean if we can use " derive" in active voice for things( not human beings)?! Could anyone confirm?! Thanks.
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25 Oct 2005, 22:43
Id say its between C and D.

happiness derives from many things... is idiomatic.

C is best because the two alphabets are plural.

Last edited by GMATT73 on 25 Oct 2005, 22:55, edited 1 time in total.
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25 Oct 2005, 22:53
GMATT73 wrote:
Id say its between C and D.

happiness derives from may things... is idiomatic.

C is best because the two alphabets are plural.

Thanks, Matt So I would change to C
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Re: SC - Persia [#permalink]

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26 Oct 2005, 01:31
rigger wrote:
The Achaemenid empire of Persia reached the Indus Valley in fifth century B.C., bringing the Aramaic script with it, from which was derived both northern and southern Indian alphabets.

a)
b) the Aramaic script with it, and from which deriving both the northern and the
c) with it the Aramaic script, from which derive both the northern and the
d) with it the Aramaic script, from which derives both the northern and
e) with it the Aramaic script, and deriving from it both the northern and the

"with it" is required and hence A and B are out.
In E the second it is ambiguous, and even if it refers to the empire of persia, they were not deriving the northern and southern alphabets. So E is out. Derives is plural and so are the nothern and southern alpahbets. So I would go with D.
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26 Oct 2005, 11:15
The OA is C!!!

But I do have a question: should it be "derive" or "derives?
26 Oct 2005, 11:15
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# The Achaemenid empire of Persia reached the Indus Valley in

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