The executive has been accused of embezzling funds

Hello Experts,

I'm going through Manhattan's verbal foundation, there, it suggest that you can change any gerund to a noun to check if it is a verb or not.

ex. Dating is tricky --> changing gerund to noun --> \(Algebra\) is tricky

When i use this approach and switch it to a "noun" it make less sense.

ex. "The executive has been accused of embezzling funds" --> "The executive has been accused of Algebra (??) funds"


Why embezzling is considered a gerund? is just because it do not have a helping verb?

Thanks!!

Hi rtsaito.

Notice that "embezzling" is the object of the preposition "of." So, it's functioning as a noun.

Of course, we can't say, "accused of algebra funds." However, the issue is not that "embezzling" is not a gerund. The issue is that "algebra" and "funds" don't work together.

We could say, "accused of theft" or "accused of extortion."
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'embezzling funds' is a gerund phrase. A gerund phrase has a gerund + its modifiers or object. The entire thing acts as a noun.
The preposition is followed by a noun (object of the preposition). 'Embezzling funds' is the object of the preposition 'of.'

accused of what? Embezzling funds
'funds' is the object of 'embezzling.'
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I'm trying to build a strong foundation, so this is really helpful! Appreciate!

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