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I will have to say C as well.

A - does not address Greco's condition
B - same as A and does not mean that these people were alive during his time
D - irrelevant
E - same as A; did other artists have astigmatism? Could be 'yes' or 'no'

...so go with C.

Thanks for the question.
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While answering the question, I didn't understand C, so I went with B. But thinking more about answer C, here is my understanding

Lets say El Greco sees a 6 feet guy and due to astigmatism, he perceives him to be 12 feet (he sees things twice as long).
Now when he draws it, if he draws it to be 6 feet, then when he looks at his painting, it will look 12 feet to him, the same as how he perceives a real human.
If he draws it at 12 feet, when he looks back at his painting, he'll see it as 24 feet, which will not match the 12 feet person he visually perceives. The painting would look distorted to him.
Hence the size of a person in his paintings should match the size of the real person, so that with his astigmatism, he sees both of the same size.
Hence C makes sense. But it's really hard to get this level of understanding in 2 minutes (including time of reading question and all answers).
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C.
If the elongated figures in his paintings have appeared to him to be distorted, the figures in portraits by El Greco would not have been SYSTEMATICALLY elongated.
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On reading this question in forums, I found that some people thought this was a C&E argument and felt that providing an alternate cause will serve as a weakener. However, we do not want to weaken the argument.
We want to make sure that this explanation is not the correct explanation. i.e in c&e terms, X led to Y is the conclusion.
we have to prove X cannot lead to Y.
Choice B is talking about some people-not as people in general as a whole.
so maybe this choice does throw some doubt over the conclusion, but does not destroy it.
choice e, providing the example of non european arguments, says that they intentionally distorted the images. Again, this serves as a weakener. but does not destroy the conclusion completely.
To understand choice C, refer to the attachment
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el-greco_CROGVR2.pptx [49.62 KiB]
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The answer is C. I arrived at the answer by POE, and the legendary Ron Purewal says so too :)

https://www.manhattangmat.com/forums/gma ... t9634.html
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noboru wrote:
Official Guide for GMAT Verbal Review, 2nd Edition

Practice Question
Question No.: 78
Page: 148
Difficulty:


Which of the following most logically completes the passage?

The figures in portraits by the Spanish painter El Greco (1541–1614) are systematically elongated. In El Greco’s time, the intentional distortion of human figures was unprecedented in European painting. Consequently, some critics have suggested that El Greco had an astigmatism, a type of visual impairment, that resulted in people appearing to him in the distorted way that is characteristic of his paintings. However, this suggestion cannot be the explanation, because______________.

(A) several twentieth-century artists have consciously adopted from El Greco’s paintings the systematic elongation of the human form
(B) some people do have elongated bodies somewhat like those depicted in El Greco’s portraits
(C) if El Greco had an astigmatism, then, relative to how people looked to him, the elongated figures in his paintings would have appeared to him to be distorted
(D) even if El Greco had an astigmatism, there would have been no correction for it available in the period in which he lived
(E) there were non-European artists, even in El Greco’s time, who included in their works human figures that were intentionally distorted


Premise-1: The figures in portraits by the Spanish painter El Greco (1541–1614) are systematically elongated

Premise-2: In El Greco’s time, the intentional distortion of human figures was unprecedented in European painting.

Intermediate Conclusion: Consequently, some critics have suggested that El Greco had an astigmatism, a type of visual impairment, that resulted in people appearing to him in the distorted way that is characteristic of his paintings

Conclusion: this suggestion cannot be the explanation

To Prove: The distortion in the human figures found in the Greco’s paintings is NOT the result of visual impairment, an astigmatism.

(A) several twentieth-century artists have consciously adopted from El Greco’s paintings the systematic elongation of the human form

We are not looking forward to prove that 20th century artists ADOPTED Greco’s paintings. Logic behind this incorrect choice to make it seem correct is that IF THIS DISTORTION CAN BE ADOPTED THEN IT IS CHOICE THAT A PAINTER MAKES NOT A RESULT OF ASTIGMATISM. But as a test taker I can’t prove it. hence this fact cannot work as “TO PROVE”.

(B) some people do have elongated bodies somewhat like those depicted in El Greco’s portraits

People having elongated body is not the point of discussion BUT elongation in paintings found is intentional or due to impairment is.

(C) if El Greco had an astigmatism, then, relative to how people looked to him, the elongated figures in his paintings would have appeared to him to be distorted

This choice helps “TO PROVE”. If a painter has visual impairment then how come distortion does not occur related to how people looked at him. This proves that the distortion is intentional not resulted by astigmatism

(D) even if El Greco had an astigmatism, there would have been no correction for it available in the period in which he lived

This choice is neutral. Doesn’t help “To prove”.
Greco has astigmatism ---- Paintings have distorted figures.
Greco doesn’t astigmatism ---- Paintings have distorted figures.

(E) there were non-European artists, even in El Greco’s time, who included in their works human figures that were intentionally distorted

This could be one tricky choice. BUT if we keep the SCOPE in mind then we can eliminate it. Argument talks about EUROPEANS and this choice discuss non-European BUT no connection is provided. We have no clue whether Europeans and non-Europeans used to follow arts or cultures of each other.
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Nups1324 wrote:
Quote:
Hi VeritasKarishma

I checked your explanation on the similar question,which is linked in the above explanation. I understood your explanation but I'm still confused.

So you mean to say that he sees a person with a round shape head but instead he draws a ellipse shape head of that person in his painting. Which means that Greco has a perception problem rather than a visual problem?

Case 1
Person has round shape head.
Greco sees round, draws round.

Greco is normal.

Case 2
Person has round shape head.
Greco sees round, draws ellipse.

Greco has perception problem.

Case 3
Person has round shape head.
Greco sees ellipse, draws ellipse.

Greco has visual problem called A.

Case 4
Person has round shape head.
Greco sees ellipse, draws round.

Greco has both visual and perception problem.

So where does C fit into all these..?

I really liked your explanation and I thought I understood but when I came back to this question I was confused.

It'll be great if you could solve my doubt.

Thank you :)

Posted from my mobile device


Quote:
I don't know how you are distinguishing visual/perception problems. Greco has a problem in his eye so EVERYTHING he sees is distorted.

Think about it this way: You have perfect vision. You see a person with a round face. You see the perfect painting of that person which will again have a round face.

Now Greco has distorted vision. He sees a person with a round face but sees an ellipse. He sees a painting of a person with a round face. He will see the face as an ellipse there on the painting too because his own vision is distorted. So EVERY circle will look like an ellipse to him, whether in real life or in a painting.

So this is what happens:
A person has a round face. Greco sees an ellipse (distorted vision of the person).
Greco starts drawing. He moves his pencil around as per what he sees on the paper (again distorted vision on paper).
He draws a round face. He sees it as an ellipse (because of distorted vision). He thinks he has captured the reality perfectly on paper (which is correct). Just that in his mind, the face is an ellipse but the way a normal person sees it is a circle.

Does this help?


Hi VeritasKarishma

Okay, this is perfectly clear but then how does Option C fit as the correct answer, if this is the correct meaning..?

I'll break it down.

"Consequently, some critics have suggested that El Greco had an astigmatism, a type of visual impairment, that resulted in people appearing to him in the distorted way that is characteristic of his paintings."

This part says that some critics suggest that Greco had a distorted vision (which is nothing but astigmatism) thus he saw people in distorted way and the same was reflected in his paintings. Right?

"However, this suggestion cannot be the explanation, because______________."

Now this part starts with "However", which indicates that an alternative explanation has to be there. Because however is used to introduce a counter view isn't it?

But option C tells us that "If he had astigmatism, then just like the people the paintings would've appeared to him as distorted as well" which is nothing but the same information we get from the critics' suggestion.

This is my understanding of the whole scenario. If I'm missing anything, please help me understand it.


Thank you :)


Some people say: El Greco had an astigmatism, a type of visual impairment, that resulted in people appearing to him in the distorted way that is characteristic of his paintings.

However, this suggestion cannot be the explanation, because______________.

His astigmatism cannot be the reason he made distorted faces because _______

We already understand that astigmatism cannot be the reason for distorted faces because as we have discussed, even with astigmatism, he would have reproduced reality perfectly. He would not have produced distorted images.

Option (C) says the same thing.

(C) if El Greco had an astigmatism, then, relative to how people looked to him, the elongated figures in his paintings would have appeared to him to be distorted

If he had astigmatism, when he would look at this own paintings with astigmatic eyes, the elongated figures he drew would look even more distorted to him and he would see that they do not represent reality.
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Nups1324 wrote:

I'm sorry for such a late reply.

I wanted to not ask you to explain it in more detail for then I would've not developed the ability to think holistically.

Finally, I understood this. Damn..this was something. I will always remember this.

I have been reading this question and your explanation multiple times over the past few days but every time I failed to understand the reasoning. Today, I sat down with a clear mind and re-read it and really made an effort to understand. This was a really good question.

Thank you so much for explanation it to me in such detail. :)


Reading that you faced such problems understanding it, I thought of an easier way to explain this - Think of someone wearing pink tinted sunglasses permanently.
He sees a white flower and it looks pink to him.
He looks at his palette and white color looks pink to him. He picks up the color and paints a flower with it. His painting looks like a painting of a pink flower to him.
Note that he has depicted the reality the way it is because his perspective is the same everywhere.
That is what the question wants you to realise. And yes, it is a good question.
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Tanchat wrote:
Dear Experts,

I read all comments.
However, I don't understand (C). What does (C) actually mean? and How (C) help?

I eliminated (A), (D), and (E).

To understand (C), let's first consider a similar situation to El Greco's paintings:

Imagine an artist who loved painting glasses of milk, but for some reason this artist painted the milk as green rather than white. Then imagine someone tried to explain this weird situation by suggesting the artist wore green-tinted glasses all the time. Would this explain why the artist painted green milk?

Not really. Because if the artist wore green-tinted glasses all the time, then white paint would also look green. In other words, the green-tinted glasses would distort not only the color of actual milk, but the color of the artist's paintings as well. So if the artist painted milk using white paint, it would still look green to the artist. As a result, the green-tinted lenses would not explain why the artist used green paint instead of white paint.

Let's now examine (C):

Quote:
(C) if El Greco had an astigmatism, then, relative to how people looked to him, the elongated figures in his paintings would have appeared to him to be distorted

Just as an artist with green-tinted lenses would see white paint as green, so would a person with astigmatism see normal figures in a painting as elongated. In other words, if El Greco had astigmatism, not only would he have seen living people as elongated, he would have seen paintings of normally-shaped people as elongated.

Put another way: astigmatism would explain why El Greco saw people as elongated. But it would not explain why he painted people as elongated. Because if he had astigmatism, paintings of normally-shaped people would have appeared to him as elongated. So he'd have no reason to actually paint them as elongated.

I hope that helps!
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This argument asks us to weaken the stated conclusion. Therefore, we are looking for new information which shows that the conclusion - that the elongated figures were due to his astigmatism - based on the premise that elongated figures were not normal in the art world.

noboru wrote:
The figures in portraits by the Spanish painter El Greco (1541-1614) are systematically elongated. In El Greco's time, the intentional distortion of the human figures was unprecedented in European Painting. Consequently, some critics have suggested that El Greco had astigmatism, a type of visual impairment that resulted in people appearing to him in the distorted way that is characteristic of his paintings. However, this suggestion cannot be the explanation, because _______________________
A. Several twentieth century artists have consciously adopted from El Greco's paintings the systematic elongation of the human form.the fact that people copied him afterward cannot speak to why he painted what he did when he did
B. Some people do have elongated bodies somewhat like those depicted in El Greco's portraits.This was still not the norm in painting and while it may work, we would need to know that El Greco knew of these people for it to be truly strong.
C. If El Greco had astigmatism, then, relative to how people looked to him, the elongated figures in his paintings would have appeared to him to be distorted.This works because it is an explanation about how the astigmatism would not have explained the figures as they would not have looked like people to him either
D. Even if El Greco had astigmatism, there would have been no correction for it available in the period in which he lived.while this may be true, it is doesn't affect whether the astigmatism caused his figures to be distorted and therefore can't weaken
E. There were non-European artists even in El Greco's time who included in their works human figures that were intentionally distorted. IN this case the non-European artists are irrelevant
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noboru wrote:
Official Guide for GMAT Verbal Review, 2nd Edition

Practice Question
Question No.: 78
Page: 148
Difficulty:


Which of the following most logically completes the passage?

The figures in portraits by the Spanish painter El Greco (1541–1614) are systematically elongated. In El Greco’s time, the intentional distortion of human figures was unprecedented in European painting. Consequently, some critics have suggested that El Greco had an astigmatism, a type of visual impairment, that resulted in people appearing to him in the distorted way that is characteristic of his paintings. However, this suggestion cannot be the explanation, because______________.

(A) several twentieth-century artists have consciously adopted from El Greco’s paintings the systematic elongation of the human form
(B) some people do have elongated bodies somewhat like those depicted in El Greco’s portraits
(C) if El Greco had an astigmatism, then, relative to how people looked to him, the elongated figures in his paintings would have appeared to him to be distorted
(D) even if El Greco had an astigmatism, there would have been no correction for it available in the period in which he lived
(E) there were non-European artists, even in El Greco’s time, who included in their works human figures that were intentionally distorted


if the artist had some eye problem and he saw both a LIVE HUMAN FIGURE..... AND HIS PAINTING, SUPPOSED TO BE A REPLICA- BUT DISTORTED- HENCE DIFFERENT FROM THE ACTUAL LIVE VERSION.......

HE WOULD FIND BOTH DIFFERENT..........BUT THAT CANNOT BE THE CASE........ TO THE PAINTER BOTH THE LIVE AND PAINTED VERSION HAVE TO APPEAR SIMILAR- OTHERWISE WHAT WORTH A PAINTER OF PROMINENCE IS HE?

HENCE HE would have deliberately drawn them differently.............



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The figures in portraits by the Spanish painter El Greco (1541–1614) are systematically elongated. In El Greco’s time, the intentional distortion of human figures was unprecedented in European painting. Consequently, some critics have suggested that El Greco had an astigmatism, a type of visual impairment, that resulted in people appearing to him in the distorted way that is characteristic of his paintings. However, this suggestion cannot be the explanation, because______________.

Type - weaken
Boil it down - Critics claim that El Greco had an astigmatism and thus figures in his portraits are systematically elongated

(A) several twentieth-century artists have consciously adopted from El Greco’s paintings the systematic elongation of the human form - Out of scope
(B) some people do have elongated bodies somewhat like those depicted in El Greco’s portraits - Incorrect - even if some people did have elongated , this does not explain for the rest . And also did El Greco made portraits for these some people
(C) if El Greco had an astigmatism, then, relative to how people looked to him, the elongated figures in his paintings would have appeared to him to be distorted - Correct
(D) even if El Greco had an astigmatism, there would have been no correction for it available in the period in which he lived - Irrelevant - we are not concerned about any remedies
(E) there were non-European artists, even in El Greco’s time, who included in their works human figures that were intentionally distorted - Out of scope - we are not concerned about other non-European artists

Answer C
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BEST ANALOGY TO UNDERSTAND OPTION C Quickly AND Easily,

if you still don't understand, then look through a magnifying glass at a letter, make a copy of the letter (while still looking through the glass), and then take the magnifying glass away. the letters will be the same size.
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vnigam21 wrote:
BEST ANALOGY TO UNDERSTAND OPTION C Quickly AND Easily,

if you still don't understand, then look through a magnifying glass at a letter, make a copy of the letter (while still looking through the glass), and then take the magnifying glass away. the letters will be the same size.



This looks like a Ron Purewal explanation!
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Nups1324 wrote:
VeritasKarishma wrote:
EatMyDosa wrote:
Hi GMATNinja, VeritasKarishma, egmat

Could you please help me understand what does option C actually mean? My reasoning for rejecting option C is as follows:

If El Greco had visual impairment (astigmatism) then people would have appeared to him in a distorted way and he would have painted portraits of those same people exactly (i.e. distorted) as he perceived them. Therefore, to El Greco, his paintings would not have appeared distorted.

I selected option A for the following reason:

If several 20th century artists consciously adopted the technique of systematic elongation of human form from El Greco's paintings, then it shows that the technique could have been developed or practiced consciously by EG (as it was replicable --other artists adopted it) and that his style was not a result of some visual impairment.

Had it been a result of some visual impairment then how could several other artists who didn't have (most likely) any visual impairment could have adopted his style?


Check this out: https://gmatclub.com/forum/in-persons-w ... l#p2513048

Same question in a different format.

(A) doesn't help here because it does nothing to tell us the reason why El Greco started painting in this way. Other artists started copying him and making longer faces is irrelevant. He started a trend an others followed. Point is what made him start the trend.


Hi VeritasKarishma

I checked your explanation on the similar question,which is linked in the above explanation. I understood your explanation but I'm still confused.

So you mean to say that he sees a person with a round shape head but instead he draws a ellipse shape head of that person in his painting. Which means that Greco has a perception problem rather than a visual problem?

Case 1
Person has round shape head.
Greco sees round, draws round.

Greco is normal.

Case 2
Person has round shape head.
Greco sees round, draws ellipse.

Greco has perception problem.

Case 3
Person has round shape head.
Greco sees ellipse, draws ellipse.

Greco has visual problem called A.

Case 4
Person has round shape head.
Greco sees ellipse, draws round.

Greco has both visual and perception problem.

So where does C fit into all these..?

I really liked your explanation and I thought I understood but when I came back to this question I was confused.

It'll be great if you could solve my doubt.

Thank you :)

Posted from my mobile device


I don't know how you are distinguishing visual/perception problems. Greco has a problem in his eye so EVERYTHING he sees is distorted.

Think about it this way: You have perfect vision. You see a person with a round face. You see the perfect painting of that person which will again have a round face.

Now Greco has distorted vision. He sees a person with a round face but sees an ellipse. He sees a painting of a person with a round face. He will see the face as an ellipse there on the painting too because his own vision is distorted. So EVERY circle will look like an ellipse to him, whether in real life or in a painting.

So this is what happens:
A person has a round face. Greco sees an ellipse (distorted vision of the person).
Greco starts drawing. He moves his pencil around as per what he sees on the paper (again distorted vision on paper).
He draws a round face. He sees it as an ellipse (because of distorted vision). He thinks he has captured the reality perfectly on paper (which is correct). Just that in his mind, the face is an ellipse but the way a normal person sees it is a circle.

Does this help?
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noboru wrote:
The figures in portraits by the Spanish painter El Greco (1541-1614) are systematically elongated. In El Greco's time, the intentional distortion of the human figures was unprecedented in European Painting. Consequently, some critics have suggested that El Greco had astigmatism, a type of visual impairment that resulted in people appearing to him in the distorted way that is characteristic of his paintings. However, this suggestion cannot be the explanation, because _______________________
A. Several twentieth century artists have consciously adopted from El Greco's paintings the systematic elongation of the human form.
B. Some people do have elongated bodies somewhat like those depicted in El Greco's portraits.
C. If El Greco had astigmatism, then, relative to how people looked to him, the elongated figures in his paintings would have appeared to him to be distorted.
D. Even if El Greco had astigmatism, there would have been no correction for it available in the period in which he lived.
E. There were non-European artists even in El Greco's time who included in their works human figures that were intentionally distorted.


I think it is C

a) Several artists adopted the elongation - that say anything about the painters disease - the artists might have adopted the techinque which El Greco got by visual impairment
b) Some prople have elongated body - does El Greco painted these people? May or may not
c)
d) No correction available - says nothing about painters impairment
e) The non-European painters may also have the visual impairment - and hence drawn elongated paintings

So only C is left out.

Whats the OA?
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noboru wrote:
Official Guide for GMAT Verbal Review, 2nd Edition

Practice Question
Question No.: 78
Page: 148
Difficulty:


Which of the following most logically completes the passage?

The figures in portraits by the Spanish painter El Greco (1541–1614) are systematically elongated. In El Greco’s time, the intentional distortion of human figures was unprecedented in European painting. Consequently, some critics have suggested that El Greco had an astigmatism, a type of visual impairment, that resulted in people appearing to him in the distorted way that is characteristic of his paintings. However, this suggestion cannot be the explanation, because______________.

(A) several twentieth-century artists have consciously adopted from El Greco’s paintings the systematic elongation of the human form
(B) some people do have elongated bodies somewhat like those depicted in El Greco’s portraits
(C) if El Greco had an astigmatism, then, relative to how people looked to him, the elongated figures in his paintings would have appeared to him to be distorted
(D) even if El Greco had an astigmatism, there would have been no correction for it available in the period in which he lived
(E) there were non-European artists, even in El Greco’s time, who included in their works human figures that were intentionally distorted



(A) several twentieth-century artists have consciously adopted from El Greco’s paintings the systematic elongation of the human form - This does not explain because people might have adopted EG's work. And we just want to give reasoning - as to why what people suggested about EG that he has astigmatism - is wrong

(B) some people do have elongated bodies somewhat like those depicted in El Greco’s portraits - First off, its saying some people, secondly we dont know if EG just portrayed those peoples in his paintings.

(C) if El Greco had an astigmatism, then, relative to how people looked to him, the elongated figures in his paintings would have appeared to him to be distorted - This answer choice says that if he really made elongated portraits because he had astigmatism, then the elongated portraits would have appear to him even more distorted.

(D) even if El Greco had an astigmatism, there would have been no correction for it available in the period in which he lived - this doesnt affect the argument.

(E) there were non-European artists, even in El Greco’s time, who included in their works human figures that were intentionally distorted - this strengthens because it says there were no non -euporean artists who made intentionally distorted figures. Note that - in the argument it states european artists made distorted figures. But, EG was Spanish.
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