Thank you for using the timer - this advanced tool can estimate your performance and suggest more practice questions. We have subscribed you to Daily Prep Questions via email.

Customized for You

we will pick new questions that match your level based on your Timer History

Track Your Progress

every week, we’ll send you an estimated GMAT score based on your performance

Practice Pays

we will pick new questions that match your level based on your Timer History

Not interested in getting valuable practice questions and articles delivered to your email? No problem, unsubscribe here.

It appears that you are browsing the GMAT Club forum unregistered!

Signing up is free, quick, and confidential.
Join other 500,000 members and get the full benefits of GMAT Club

Registration gives you:

Tests

Take 11 tests and quizzes from GMAT Club and leading GMAT prep companies such as Manhattan GMAT,
Knewton, and others. All are free for GMAT Club members.

Applicant Stats

View detailed applicant stats such as GPA, GMAT score, work experience, location, application
status, and more

Books/Downloads

Download thousands of study notes,
question collections, GMAT Club’s
Grammar and Math books.
All are free!

Thank you for using the timer!
We noticed you are actually not timing your practice. Click the START button first next time you use the timer.
There are many benefits to timing your practice, including:

lets see 101^2, is 10201, 101^3 is 1030301 you will notice that the 3rd digit from the left will become 0, when we hit ^10, so based on that 100,000,00 will divide it E it is..

Ithink its not a Gmat question becasue it will test u with Eulers law. which i guess is not in GMAT.

Anyways .. i cant explain u the rule here...

Eulers rule says..If M and N are 2 co primes to each other.. HCF (M,N) = 1 and N= a^p*b^q.......remainder ( M^#(N)/N) = 1. where #N = N( 1-1/a)(1-1/b)..are Euler Totient function ..

here 101 and 100 are co primes

101 ( 1-1/101) = 100

hence the expression

101^100 will be divisble by 10000 will give an remainder of 1 101^100 - 1 is +1-1 = 0.

hence the whole expression is divisble by 10000.

I am sure its tough to understand.. but please let me know if u have any doubts...

Ithink its not a Gmat question becasue it will test u with Eulers law. which i guess is not in GMAT.

Anyways .. i cant explain u the rule here...

Eulers rule says..If M and N are 2 co primes to each other.. HCF (M,N) = 1 and N= a^p*b^q.......remainder ( M^#(N)/N) = 1. where #N = N( 1-1/a)(1-1/b)..are Euler Totient function ..

here 101 and 100 are co primes

101 ( 1-1/101) = 100

hence the expression

101^100 will be divisble by 10000 will give an remainder of 1 101^100 - 1 is +1-1 = 0.

hence the whole expression is divisble by 10000.

I am sure its tough to understand.. but please let me know if u have any doubts...

I got this reply from one Guru and i dont get it myslef

gmatclubot

Re: Largest number
[#permalink]
21 Oct 2008, 07:05