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# The term universe has a variety of meanings, based on the

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08 Sep 2006, 09:49
I will go with D.

A - Can be rejected because argument never discuss about limits of universe.
B - One universe of part of a system of universes then it doesn't mean that they should overlap. For example if states (universes) are part of country (multiverse) then it doesn't mean states should overlap.
C - Clearly rejected. Multiverse is a concept not a tangible thing.
D - Both Multiverse and Universe are same in concept except one is part of another.
E - Seems out of scope.
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08 Sep 2006, 10:20
ps_dahiya wrote:

B - One universe of part of a system of universes then it doesn't mean that they should overlap. For example if states (universes) are part of country (multiverse) then it doesn't mean states should overlap.
color]

States are lines printed on a two dimentional map. Don't you think the concept of universe goes to a much higher level, encompassing all boundries and dimensions
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08 Sep 2006, 10:34
GMATT73 wrote:
Yurik79 wrote:
Edited
OK let me try ))

My vote is for D
reasoning as follows
Essentially, a universe and multiverse are two in the same
facts-->
In strictly physical terms, the total universe is the summation of all matter that exists and the space in which all events occur or could occur.

Some scientists hypothesize that the universe may be part of a system of many other universes, known as the multiverse.

In the same time it is a whole and a part of something great))

The term universe has a variety of meanings, based on the context in which it is used. In strictly physical terms, the total universe is the summation of all matter that exists and the space in which all events occur or could occur. The part of the universe that can be seen or otherwise observed to have occurred is usually called the known universe, observable universe, or visible universe. Because cosmic inflation removes vast parts of the total universe from our observable horizon, most cosmologists accept that it is impossible to observe the whole continuum and may use the expression our universe, referring to only that which is knowable by human beings in particular. In cosmological terms, the universe is thought to be a finite or infinite space-time continuum in which all matter and energy exist. Some scientists hypothesize that the universe may be part of a system of many other universes, known as the multiverse.

Which of the following can best be inferred from the facts leading up to the definition of the multiverse?

A. In terms of human knowledge, the mutiverse does have a finite limit.

In cosmological terms, the universe is thought to be a finite or infinite space-time continuum out

B. A multiverse may contain multiple universes provided such universes overlap.

C. A multiverse is a tangible continuum of space, time and matter.
NOT STATED
D. Essentially, a universe and multiverse are two in the same. BINGO

E. The existence of a multiverse remains enigmatic, even to the most profound of scholars.
I don't think that existence of multiverse is enigmatic its just the problem how to name this great system

Yurik is putting up a good fight here. U2 Lover, Haas, Professor, "sharp arrow",you guys care to partake in this discussion?

Hey matt, I'd said something alike prior to yurik's demonstration!
Wasn't my explanation convincing enough?

Karlfurt wrote:
Quote:
D

A. In terms of human knowledge, the mutiverse does have a finite limit.
out since a universe can be finite or infinite
B. A multiverse may contain multiple universes provided such universes overlap.
out - multiverse contains many universe but nowhere it is said that they overlap
C. A multiverse is a tangible continuum of space, time and matter.
out - we know that a universe is a continuum. but since they might not overlap, we cannot conclude that a multiverse is a continuum.
D. Essentially, a universe and multiverse are two in the same.
OK- a multiverse contains universes and itself -
E. The existence of a multiverse remains enigmatic, even to the most profound of scholars.
out - multiverse is a concept which is not enigmatic to some scientist.
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08 Sep 2006, 12:55

Look forward to reading the OE for this one... (was this supposed to be under 2:00 mins??:yikes )

A. In terms of human knowledge, the mutiverse does have a finite limit.

B. A multiverse may contain multiple universes provided such universes overlap.

Argument does say that the multiverse can have multiple universes; "may" is good possible... reasonable.

C. A multiverse is a tangible continuum of space, time and matter.

Tangible for a "hypothesis" ??

D. Essentially, a universe and multiverse are two in the same.

Again very confident Out...

E. The existence of a multiverse remains enigmatic, even to the most profound of scholars.

Maybe, but what do I do with that?? Out...
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08 Sep 2006, 23:09
haas_mba07 wrote:

Look forward to reading the OE for this one... (was this supposed to be under 2:00 mins??:yikes )

A. In terms of human knowledge, the mutiverse does have a finite limit.

B. A multiverse may contain multiple universes provided such universes overlap.

Argument does say that the multiverse can have multiple universes; "may" is good possible... reasonable.

C. A multiverse is a tangible continuum of space, time and matter.

Tangible for a "hypothesis" ??

D. Essentially, a universe and multiverse are two in the same.

Again very confident Out...

E. The existence of a multiverse remains enigmatic, even to the most profound of scholars.

Maybe, but what do I do with that?? Out...

Haas can you explain why you think answer choice (A) is out?
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09 Sep 2006, 06:22
The statement A is pretty confident... not that I am confident. (I am not nearly qualified enought to talk about multiverses.. )

Statement A is definate about the bounds of human knowledge and is drawing a conclusion on a topic which is known to be a hypothesis.

For that matter D is very conclusive in its implications, which should not be true for a hypothesis..

That was my reasoning...

GMATT73 wrote:
haas_mba07 wrote:

Look forward to reading the OE for this one... (was this supposed to be under 2:00 mins??:yikes )

A. In terms of human knowledge, the mutiverse does have a finite limit.

D. Essentially, a universe and multiverse are two in the same.
[b]
Again very confident Out...

[/b]

Haas can you explain why you think answer choice (A) is out?
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09 Sep 2006, 06:54
My gut reaction was either B or E. I like B best for the following reasons. The text is dealing with the idea of Universe and how different people define a Universe. Also we learn that we cannot see beyond our Universe, in fact we cannot see our universe. There might even be a Multiverse which contains many universes...(now I am a little off on the word "overlap" but if they did not overlap they would not be part of a multiverse, but a seperate Universe)

The other choices have words that make them too specific...A universe is not tangible (or perhaps it is...who knows) a universe is finite (or maybe it is infinite) I can't make head or tails of D...it does not even seem like an intelligent statement, much less a winner on the GMAT. I will get rid of E only because of the reference to Scholars, which is outside of our scope.
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09 Sep 2006, 07:10
ps_dahiya wrote:
I will go with D.

A - Can be rejected because argument never discuss about limits of universe.
B - One universe of part of a system of universes then it doesn't mean that they should overlap. For example if states (universes) are part of country (multiverse) then it doesn't mean states should overlap.
C - Clearly rejected. Multiverse is a concept not a tangible thing.
D - Both Multiverse and Universe are same in concept except one is part of another.
E - Seems out of scope.

I still stand for B. Let me go into defining states and countries What is a state? It does nt exist except in the minds of people. The common reference is a geographical territory. A country is basically a group of such geographical territories. Where as universe includes both tangible and intangible, finite and infinite. Universe is multi-dimensional. Can have 4 or perhaps more dimensions. Any thing that can be percieved is part of a just single universe. Multiverse will exist only when there is overlap. Without a overlap everything, and every non-thing is part of a single universe

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09 Sep 2006, 08:38
I am with C.

if X, Y, Z belong to Set A, X U Y U Z belongs to set A.

U = Union
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09 Sep 2006, 09:36
GMATT73 wrote:
The term universe has a variety of meanings, based on the context in which it is used. In strictly physical terms, the total universe is the summation of all matter that exists and the space in which all events occur or could occur. The part of the universe that can be seen or otherwise observed to have occurred is usually called the known universe, observable universe, or visible universe. Because cosmic inflation removes vast parts of the total universe from our observable horizon, most cosmologists accept that it is impossible to observe the whole continuum and may use the expression our universe, referring to only that which is knowable by human beings in particular. In cosmological terms, the universe is thought to be a finite or infinite space-time continuum in which all matter and energy exist. Some scientists hypothesize that the universe may be part of a system of many other universes, known as the multiverse.

Which of the following can best be inferred from the known facts leading up to the definition of the multiverse?

A. In terms of human knowledge, the mutiverse does have a finite limit.
B. A multiverse may contain multiple universes provided such universes overlap.
C. A multiverse is a tangible continuum of space, time and matter.
D. Essentially, a universe and multiverse are two in the same.
E. The existence of a multiverse remains enigmatic, even to the most profound of scholars.

A is ruled out 'cos humans are not yet there to define multiverse
C I think this is correct.
D Well again looking too generically at the premise
E Not all but some scholars was given in the premise. So ruled out.
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09 Sep 2006, 13:55
Geez MATTY..would you please finally break the silence with OA?

:)

This one has been killing me. BTW, I selected C.
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09 Sep 2006, 20:33
ak_idc wrote:
ps_dahiya wrote:
I will go with D.

A - Can be rejected because argument never discuss about limits of universe.
B - One universe of part of a system of universes then it doesn't mean that they should overlap. For example if states (universes) are part of country (multiverse) then it doesn't mean states should overlap.
C - Clearly rejected. Multiverse is a concept not a tangible thing.
D - Both Multiverse and Universe are same in concept except one is part of another.
E - Seems out of scope.

I still stand for B. Let me go into defining states and countries What is a state? It does nt exist except in the minds of people. The common reference is a geographical territory. A country is basically a group of such geographical territories. Where as universe includes both tangible and intangible, finite and infinite. Universe is multi-dimensional. Can have 4 or perhaps more dimensions. Any thing that can be percieved is part of a just single universe. Multiverse will exist only when there is overlap. Without a overlap everything, and every non-thing is part of a single universe

How can one not respect a justification like this. It is clear that A.K. is not letting the definition of lines and borders impede his interpretation of the definition of a multiverse. I envision your explanation as an infinite number of "venn diagram like universes" overlapping in more than three different dimensions, containing all matter and antimatter. This being the case, would their be a finite limit to the concept of a multiverse or not?? In essence that is what this CR is asking, and so far AK's reasoning is starting to lead us to the correct answer. (**Note D may/may not be the correct answer)

A.K., reread this one last time with a clear head and it will come to you instantly. Not just the correct answer choice, but the real reason why you can understand it. You are very, very close
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09 Sep 2006, 23:18
I disagree with D because, it sort of states that universe is a subset of multiverse, and multiverse is a subset of universe. This is possible when both have same limits interms of objects, space, or dimensions. We are part of one universe. Atleast we assume so. There lie the boundaries of our comprehension of multiverse. With our knowledge we can perhaps say that we are part of a multiverse. But we cannot speculate that multiverse is a subset of universe. It perhaps can be
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10 Sep 2006, 01:13
ak_idc wrote:
I disagree with D because, it sort of states that universe is a subset of multiverse, and multiverse is a subset of universe. This is possible when both have same limits interms of objects, space, or dimensions. We are part of one universe. Atleast we assume so. There lie the boundaries of our comprehension of multiverse. With our knowledge we can perhaps say that we are part of a multiverse. But we cannot speculate that multiverse is a subset of universe. It perhaps can be

That sounds perfectly reasonable. Now which answer choice best summarizes what you just wrote?
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10 Sep 2006, 05:47
Is it E ??
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10 Sep 2006, 09:32
GMATT73 wrote:
The term universe has a variety of meanings, based on the context in which it is used. In strictly physical terms, the total universe is the summation of all matter that exists and the space in which all events occur or could occur. The part of the universe that can be seen or otherwise observed to have occurred is usually called the known universe, observable universe, or visible universe. Because cosmic inflation removes vast parts of the total universe from our observable horizon, most cosmologists accept that it is impossible to observe the whole continuum and may use the expression our universe, referring to only that which is knowable by human beings in particular. In cosmological terms, the universe is thought to be a finite or infinite space-time continuum in which all matter and energy exist. Some scientists hypothesize that the universe may be part of a system of many other universes, known as the multiverse.

Which of the following can best be inferred from the known facts leading up to the definition of the multiverse?

A. In terms of human knowledge, the mutiverse does have a finite limit.
the universe is thought to be a finite or infinite space-time continuum in which all matter and energy exist : So how can a multiverse have a finite limit? also note human knowledge not human experience

B. A multiverse may contain multiple universes provided such universes overlap.
Out of scope, the universes may not may not overlap

C. A multiverse is a tangible continuum of space, time and matter.
Not necessarily tangible in terms of human experience

D. Essentially, a universe and multiverse are two in the same.
I have never quite seen the phrase "are two in the same." Assuming it means they are one and the same. Multiverses are collections of universes. Is a drop of water the same as an ocean? In terms of substance but not quantity

E. The existence of a multiverse remains enigmatic, even to the most profound of scholars.

though possibly true it seems out of scope

D seems more plausible

Matt, could you post the OE as well..

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Re: CR The Multiverse   [#permalink] 10 Sep 2006, 09:32

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