GMAT Question of the Day - Daily to your Mailbox; hard ones only

 It is currently 15 Oct 2019, 17:37

### GMAT Club Daily Prep

#### Thank you for using the timer - this advanced tool can estimate your performance and suggest more practice questions. We have subscribed you to Daily Prep Questions via email.

Customized
for You

we will pick new questions that match your level based on your Timer History

Track

every week, we’ll send you an estimated GMAT score based on your performance

Practice
Pays

we will pick new questions that match your level based on your Timer History

# Thirty years ago, the percentage of the British people who

Author Message
TAGS:

### Hide Tags

Manager
Joined: 21 Dec 2009
Posts: 138
Location: India
Thirty years ago, the percentage of the British people who  [#permalink]

### Show Tags

Updated on: 14 Mar 2019, 18:30
4
00:00

Difficulty:

45% (medium)

Question Stats:

67% (02:09) correct 33% (02:10) wrong based on 196 sessions

### HideShow timer Statistics

Thirty years ago, the percentage of the British people who vacationed in foreign countries was very small compared with the large percentage of the British population who travel abroad for vacations now. Foreign travel is, and always has been, expensive from Britain. Therefore, British people must have, on average, more money to spend on vacations now than they did 30 years ago.

The argument requires assuming which one of the following?

(A) If foreign travel had been less expensive 30 years ago, British people would still not have had enough money to take vacation abroad.
(B) If travel to Britain were less expensive, more people of other countries would travel to Britain for their vacations.
(C) If the percentage of British people vacationing abroad was lower 30 years ago, then the British people of 30 years ago must have spent more money on domestic vacations.
(D) If more of the British people 30 years ago had had enough money to vacation abroad, more would have done so.
(E) If British people are now wealthier than they were 30 years ago, then they must have more money to spend on vacations now than they did 30 years ago.

_________________
Cheers,
SD

Originally posted by SudiptoGmat on 18 Feb 2010, 08:44.
Last edited by gmat1393 on 14 Mar 2019, 18:30, edited 2 times in total.
Manhattan Prep Instructor
Affiliations: ManhattanGMAT
Joined: 21 Jan 2010
Posts: 331
Location: San Francisco
Re: Thirty years ago, the percentage of the British people who  [#permalink]

### Show Tags

21 Feb 2010, 11:45
2
Hey All,

I'm wondering where this questions came from, because if the official answer really is E (as you seem to say), I can't agree. It draws the wrong connection.

Conclusion: British people have more money to spend on vacations now than they did 30 years ago.

Premises: 30 years ago, small percentage of British vk'd abroad. Way more now. VK'ing abroad is expensive.

Assumption: It has anything to do with money.

(A) If foreign travel had been less expensive 30 years ago, British people would still not have had enough money to take vacation abroad.
Problem: We don't need this to make the argument. In fact, it weakens our argument. We want people to travel if they have enough money to do so.

(B) If travel to Britain were less expensive, more people of other countries would travel to Britain for their vacations.
Problem: We don't care about people of other countries.

(C) If the percentage of British people vacationing abroad was lower 30 years ago, then the British people of 30 years ago must have spent more money on domestic vacations.
Problem: Domestic vacations are not part of this argument either.

(D) If more of the British people 30 years ago had had enough money to vacation abroad, more would have done so.
Answer: Let's try the NOT test (if we take the opposite of the correct assumption, the argument should fall apart) to prove this one. "If more of the British people 30 years ago had had enough money to vacation abroad, more would NOT have done so." Now we have a problem. The passage wants to link the taking of vacations with having enough money to do so, but this now says that when people have enough money to travel, they don't necessarily do so. That destroys the point.

(E) If British people are now wealthier than they were 30 years ago, then they must have more money to spend on vacations now than they did 30 years ago.
Problem: This is linking money in general to vacation money, but we're not concerned with money in general. If we take the opposite of this ("If British people are now wealthier than they were 30 years ago, they do not necessarily spend more on vacations") [paraphrase], the argument is still fine.

Not sure where this question came from, but if the answer IS E, I'm not seeing it.

Hope that helps!
_________________

Tommy Wallach | Manhattan GMAT Instructor | San Francisco

Manhattan GMAT Discount | Manhattan GMAT Reviews
##### General Discussion
Intern
Joined: 27 Sep 2009
Posts: 39
Re: Thirty years ago, the percentage of the British people who  [#permalink]

### Show Tags

19 Feb 2010, 09:50
I think its D.
The author is assuming that Brits from 30years ago did not make foreign travel just cuz they did not have enuff money. That may not be true. Maybe Brits from 30 years ago thot that foreign countries were not as beautiful as Britain, maybe they did not get visas at that time, we don't know
But by making that assumption D he is saying that Brits from 30 years ago always wanted foreign vacation but could not afford it and now that percentage of foreign travel is up that means Brits have more money at their disposal for vacationing.

SudiptoGmat wrote:
Thirty years ago, the percentage of the British people who vacationed in foreign countries was very small compared with the large percentage of the British population who travel abroad for vacations now. Foreign travel is, and always has been, expensive from Britain. Therefore, British people must have, on average, more money to spend on vacations now than they did 30 years ago.
The argument requires assuming which one of the following?
(A) If foreign travel had been less expensive 30 years ago, British people would still not have had enough money to take vacation abroad.
(B) If travel to Britain were less expensive, more people of other countries would travel to Britain for their vacations.
(C) If the percentage of British people vacationing abroad was lower 30 years ago, then the British people of 30 years ago must have spent more money on domestic vacations.
(D) If more of the British people 30 years ago had had enough money to vacation abroad, more would have done so.
(E) If British people are now wealthier than they were 30 years ago, then they must have more money to spend on vacations now than they did 30 years ago.
I am struggling with D and E.

OA is . Can somebody explain for me?
Manager
Joined: 21 Dec 2009
Posts: 138
Location: India
Re: Thirty years ago, the percentage of the British people who  [#permalink]

### Show Tags

21 Feb 2010, 12:07
Sorry tommy OA is D not E. I have corrected my original post.
_________________
Cheers,
SD
Manager
Joined: 07 Jan 2010
Posts: 145
Re: Thirty years ago, the percentage of the British people who  [#permalink]

### Show Tags

06 Apr 2010, 06:17
D is the best.
Not e because, it links more money to travel directly, not to willingness to travel. The argument is about people who are willing to travel, but do not do it for economic reasons.
Manager
Joined: 12 Oct 2011
Posts: 155
Re: Thirty years ago, the percentage of the British people who  [#permalink]

### Show Tags

07 Jan 2012, 04:05
Nice question. D is the answer. It fills the gap that if British people 30 years ago had had more money, they would have vacationed abroad. This ties the premises to the conclusion.
_________________
Consider KUDOS if you feel the effort's worth it
Intern
Joined: 12 May 2013
Posts: 48
Re: Thirty years ago, the percentage of the British people who  [#permalink]

### Show Tags

18 Aug 2014, 09:22
can we not eliminate E because it is restating the conclusion

(E) If British people are now wealthier than they were 30 years ago, then they must have more money to spend on vacations now than they did 30 years ago.

Thank you
Non-Human User
Joined: 01 Oct 2013
Posts: 5897
Re: Thirty years ago, the percentage of the British people who  [#permalink]

### Show Tags

26 Jan 2019, 22:48
Hello from the GMAT Club VerbalBot!

Thanks to another GMAT Club member, I have just discovered this valuable topic, yet it had no discussion for over a year. I am now bumping it up - doing my job. I think you may find it valuable (esp those replies with Kudos).

Want to see all other topics I dig out? Follow me (click follow button on profile). You will receive a summary of all topics I bump in your profile area as well as via email.
_________________
Re: Thirty years ago, the percentage of the British people who   [#permalink] 26 Jan 2019, 22:48
Display posts from previous: Sort by