sislam04 wrote:
GMATNinja wrote:
sislam04 wrote:
Can someone explain why my reasoning for E is wrong?
I know that the present perfect can be used to show effect. Even though his time is over, the effect or the fact that it is disturbing to his time period will continue forever...so it should be okay to use.
Posted from my mobile device
Have you tried reviewing
this post?
Wow it’s the legend himself responding! So honored. Yes I did see that post but my point is I can make the case that in present day 2020 the fact that those things were disturbing to his time is still true. I see the way you reasoned it in that post, but I guess my question is why can’t this also be a valid interpretation?
Haha, don't inflate my ego!
Consider this on its own: "Thomas Eakins’ powerful style and his choices of subject have been disturbing in his own time." This doesn't work because of the modifier "in his own time" -- we're talking about something that happened at a specific time in the past, not an action that continued up to the present.
Yes, it would make sense to say, "Thomas Eakins’ powerful style and his choices of subject have been disturbing SINCE his own time." In this case, the time period of the action continues to the present, so the verb tense is appropriate.
We're comparing two things: (1) how disturbing his style/choices WERE in his own time and (2) how compelling his style/choices ARE for our time. We are NOT comparing: (1) how disturbing his style/choices have been SINCE his own time and (2) how compelling his style/choices have been for our time.
The "in his own time" tells us without question that the act of being disturbed happened in the past, so (E) cannot work.
I hope that helps a bit!