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# Traditionally, the study of history has had fixed boundaries

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Re: Traditionally, the study of history has had fixed boundaries [#permalink]

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30 Jul 2013, 12:36
Hi Shakti,

Let me see if I can help. Here is 26:

26. The author of the passage puts the word “deepest” (line 44) in quotation marks most probably in order to. So - we are looking for a reason why a word is put into speech marks. So we're looking for a hint that the author gives us to his intended meaning by using this device. So just as '?' tells us something (that we have sjust read a question) so to does '". It's clearly not the most obvious reason (direct speech) - so we're looking for something else.

(A) signal her reservations about the accuracy of psychohistorians’ claims for their workThis is the one that makes sense. By quoting something, and so putting it as a word used by someone else (like you are when you quote speech) you are showing that this is not a word you as the author would use. This also makes sense within the flow of the argument 0 - that our author is skeptical about the claims

Does that make sense?

James
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Re: Traditionally, the study of history has had fixed boundaries [#permalink]

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30 Jul 2013, 21:42
plumber250 wrote:
Hi Shakti,

Let me see if I can help. Here is 26:

26. The author of the passage puts the word “deepest” (line 44) in quotation marks most probably in order to. So - we are looking for a reason why a word is put into speech marks. So we're looking for a hint that the author gives us to his intended meaning by using this device. So just as '?' tells us something (that we have sjust read a question) so to does '". It's clearly not the most obvious reason (direct speech) - so we're looking for something else.

(A) signal her reservations about the accuracy of psychohistorians’ claims for their workThis is the one that makes sense. By quoting something, and so putting it as a word used by someone else (like you are when you quote speech) you are showing that this is not a word you as the author would use. This also makes sense within the flow of the argument 0 - that our author is skeptical about the claims

Does that make sense?

James

Yea thanks for the explanation..
I was confused between A and B at first, although I was not sure about the reason. Now it is clear and A makes more sense than B.
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Re: Traditionally, the study of history has had fixed boundaries [#permalink]

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02 Aug 2013, 01:23
shakti751 wrote:
Can any one explain the logic for 26th one? I am getting no clue why the author quoted the word...

The line 44 says "Psychohistorians, convinced of the absolute rightness of their own theories, are also convinced that theirs is the “deepest” explanation of any event, that other explanations fall short of the truth."

As per my understanding, in putting the word deepest in quotes, the author is critical of the Psychohistorians ways and thinks they may not be right in assuming that their theories are absolutely right. Hence, she is, in a way, questioning the accuracy of their claims.

26. The author of the passage puts the word “deepest” (line 44) in quotation marks most probably in order to
(A) signal her reservations about the accuracy of psychohistorians’ claims for their work
(B) draw attention to a contradiction in the psychohistorians’ method
(C) emphasize the major difference between the traditional historians’ method and that of psychohistorians
(D) disassociate her opinion of the psychohistorians’ claims from her opinion of their method
(E) question the usefulness of psychohistorians’ insights into traditional historical scholarship
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Re: Traditionally, the study of history has had fixed boundaries [#permalink]

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03 Aug 2013, 10:16
shakti751 wrote:
Can any one explain the logic for 26th one? I am getting no clue why the author quoted the word...

14 minutes
Made short notes for the passage.

A
A
C-- got this wrong
E
C
D
A

The logic for Q 26 as per my understanding : "And it violates the basic tenet of historical method: that historians be alert to the negative instances that would refute their theses. Psychohistorians, convinced of the absolute rightness of their own theories, are also convinced that theirs is the “deepest” explanation of any event, that other "

The way i thought of it as "So as it violates the basic tenet of historical method , it cannot be the deepest explanation"
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Re: Traditionally, the study of history has had fixed boundaries [#permalink]

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18 Feb 2014, 00:12
Quote:
20. Which of the following best states the main point of the passage?
(A) The approach of psychohistorians to historical study is currently in vogue even though it lacks the rigor and verifiability of traditional historical method.

Can somebody explain me how you found support in the passage for option A. 'Lacks rigor and verifiability'??
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18 Feb 2014, 01:48
A
E
C
B
C
E
A
i got 4 correct out of 7
i think it is a good score
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Re: Traditionally, the study of history has had fixed boundaries [#permalink]

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22 Feb 2014, 22:35
Took 18 minutes
Got 4 correct, 4 incorrect
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Re: Traditionally, the study of history has had fixed boundaries [#permalink]

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22 Jun 2014, 03:52
I strongly feel 23 should be B. Look at the following statements:
" The old questions “What happened?” and “How did it happen?” have given way to the question “Why did it happen?” Prominent among the methods used to answer the question “Why” is psychoanalysis, and its use has given rise to psychohistory."

So "what happened" and "How did it happen?” are clearly conventions governing traditional history.

Kudos to anyone who proves me wrong.
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Re: Traditionally, the study of history has had fixed boundaries [#permalink]

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09 Nov 2015, 23:56
20 mins ; 5 right 2 wrong ; killer killer passage

i got both 2nd and 3rd question wrong ; both inference ;need to practice more
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Re: Traditionally, the study of history has had fixed boundaries [#permalink]

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21 Dec 2015, 08:32
quite a long passage, but was fun ....... got al right!!
Re: Traditionally, the study of history has had fixed boundaries   [#permalink] 21 Dec 2015, 08:32

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# Traditionally, the study of history has had fixed boundaries

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