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V01-26, V01-27, V01-28

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Intern
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Joined: 18 Jul 2015
Posts: 5
Re V01-27  [#permalink]

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New post 13 Dec 2018, 00:44
I think this is a poor-quality question and I don't agree with the explanation. I agree that the passage doesn't explicitly mentions that Traditional Lending is not flexible for amount less than $1000 ,still the strucute words - 'In contrast to " sets up the tone of the comparison.
IT might not be the best solution but definately better than D , whuch states - Complicated administration process equivalent to bureucracy and administration costs . How is this inferable. Doesn't this option go pass by the scope of the passage.
How can the costs = to administration process (in meaning).
Very hard to digest.
Poor Solution provided.
Experts kindly clarify
Intern
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Joined: 21 Mar 2018
Posts: 1
Location: Andorra
Schools: Booth '21 (A)
GMAT 1: 790 Q60 V59
GRE 1: Q168 V168
GPA: 3.96
Re: V01-26, V01-27, V01-28  [#permalink]

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New post 24 Dec 2018, 05:43
mpmbtr wrote:
I think this is a high-quality question and I agree with explanation.

I also agree with it!
Intern
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Joined: 23 Apr 2019
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Re V01-26  [#permalink]

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New post 07 May 2019, 09:13
I think this is a poor-quality question and I don't agree with the explanation. Financially independent has a different meaning than having a strong credit score and steady employment. It means you have enough wealth to live on without being employed.
GMAT Club Bot
Re V01-26   [#permalink] 07 May 2019, 09:13

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