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V03-34

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V03-34  [#permalink]

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New post 28 Jan 2017, 03:23
pratyushk1 wrote:
I think this is a high-quality question and the explanation isn't clear enough, please elaborate. Can someone please provide a simpler explanation for this question.


Consider the statements individually:
X = high education level
Y = making informed career/ business choice
Z = gaining wealth

Premise : X and Z are observed to happen together (correlation)
Conclusion: Y cause Z. (The assumption here is X causes Y, which in turn causes Z).


A typical GMAT structure is that if X and Z are seen to happen together, it is may be wrong to conclude that X causes Z, because it is possible that something else (say A) causes both X and Z to happen, thereby implying the X and Z are just correlated, not that X causes Z.

Option D suggests the above problem and hence is correct. (i.e., A causes both X and Z)
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Re: V03-34  [#permalink]

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New post 19 Feb 2017, 09:06
sayantanc2k wrote:

Consider the statements individually:
X = high education level
Y = making informed career/ business choice
Z = gaining wealth

Premise : X and Z are observed to happen together (correlation)
Conclusion: Y cause Z. (The assumption here is X causes Y, which in turn causes Z).


A typical GMAT structure is that if X and Z are seen to happen together, it is may be wrong to conclude that X causes Z, because it is possible that something else (say A) causes both X and Z to happen, thereby implying the X and Z are just correlated, not that X causes Z.

Option D suggests the above problem and hence is correct. (i.e., A causes both X and Z)


Hi Sayantan,

I was actually confused by the usage of 'same thing' in option D. You may find me silly here, but how can same thing be equivalent to some other thing? Should it be reworded to 'some other thing'?
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Re: V03-34  [#permalink]

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New post 17 May 2017, 23:53
arpitshivhare wrote:
What is "the same thing" in option 4? I guess it is a pronoun error in the option 4. :D


It means "a common factor"
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Re: V03-34  [#permalink]

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New post 04 Jul 2017, 05:51
I found the following explanation on MGMAT forum for this particular question. Very Helpful explanation! :)

The argument is this:

correlation between good health and high levels of education
thus, good health is the result of making informed lifestyle decisions

For the sake of exercise, let's change the conclusion slightly to control for a separate issue we'll discuss later. For the moment, we’ll assume that making informed lifestyle decisions and being highly educated are equivalent concepts:

correlation between good health and high levels of education
thus, good health is the result of being highly educated

This argument has a correlation vs. cause issue. Just because two things are correlated doesn't mean that one necessarily results from the other. Here's the assumption/flaw language:

Assumption: There isn't a third factor that causes both high education levels and good health (eg, socioeconomic status).
Flaw language: Ignores/overlooks the possibility that a third factor may cause both high education levels and good health.

This is exactly what answer (D) says. So, one issue is this issue of cause vs. correlation.

Let's look at a second issue. Here's the original argument:

correlation between good health and high levels of education
thus, good health is the result of informed lifestyle decisions

This time let's change it slightly to eliminate the cause/correlation problem (we've already considered that):

good health is the result of high levels of education
thus, good health is the result of informed lifestyle decisions

In this case, there's an implicit connection made between high education levels and informed lifestyle decisions. We're assuming that highly educated people make informed lifestyle decisions. This is a flaw! If this were one of the answer choices, it would be a correct flaw. Answer (A) kind of gets at this assumption/flaw, but do we need to assume that ONLY highly educated people make informed lifestyle decisions? No. Maybe other kinds of people make informed decisions as well. Who cares as long as highly educated people do.

This is why (A) is wrong... NOT because it is an assumption instead of a flaw.
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New post 13 Mar 2018, 10:26
I think this question has too many answers that are nearly correct but not one single one that is definitively and clearly correct. For example

"Thus research supports the view that gaining wealth is largely the result of making informed career and business choices."

To me the passage is saying "education --> informed choices ---> wealth therefore education --> wealth" implying that it was education that produced wealth by allowing informed choices...which would only be possible to say if the uneducated also had those choices, as well, but didn't take them. Therefore the argument assumes that everyone had access to informed choices
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Re: V03-34  [#permalink]

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New post 05 Oct 2018, 04:24
This is a poor-quality question as the OA conflates 'high educational levels' and 'informed career/business choices'.

The OA implies that a third factor may causally contribute to both education and wealth. Even if this is true, the OA overlooks a bigger flaw - high education levels and informed career/biz choices are NOT the same thing.

This leaves open the possibility that the aforementioned third factor IS the 'making of informed career/biz choices', implying that the conclusion may be true and that the OA is, in fact, strengthening the argument.

In short, the OA fails to accurately highlight the causation/correlation fallacy due to poor wording.
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New post 16 Oct 2018, 03:56
I think this is a poor-quality question and the explanation isn't clear enough, please elaborate. I didnt fully understand the explanation. Why would a 3rd element be brought into the picture
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Re V03-34 &nbs [#permalink] 16 Oct 2018, 03:56

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