gmatyodha wrote:
Why is A wrong, 2 Verbs can be parallel right?
Correct me if am wrong, was and has been are two different verb forms but can be parallel since they are verbs.
And the comparison in A also makes sense for me, can't understand the reasoning why A is wrong choice.
It seems that you are considering only the grammatical rules that apply in this situation. You have to consider the logic of the meaning conveyed as well.
Notice what the version created via (A) says.
What was as remarkable as the development of the compact disc has been the use of the new technology to revitalize ...
So, we can summarize the sentence as "What was ... has been ...."
Something that "was" no longer is. The simple past "was" is used to indicate that what's being discussed is no longer exists or is no longer going on.
Something that "has been" still exists. The present perfect "has been" is used to indicate that what's being discussed still exists or is still going on.
So, in saying, "What was .. has been ...," the sentence is in conflict with itself. It is saying that something no longer exists and still exists. So, the meaning conveyed by the version created via the use of (A) is nonsensical.
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