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When hypnotized subjects are told that they are deaf and are then aske

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Re: When hypnotized subjects are told that they are deaf and are then aske  [#permalink]

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New post 29 Sep 2017, 19:24
Hi,

The process revolves around analysing the flaw/distortion in the statement. Whenever an argument jumps to a conclusion, it is bound to have loopholes. The loophole will always be the answer.
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Re: When hypnotized subjects are told that they are deaf and are then aske  [#permalink]

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New post 31 Oct 2017, 22:42
pqhai wrote:
MulanQ wrote:
Valii wrote:
My approach: If the two parts are truly disassociated, then the answering part is not deaf. Hence, it should answer the question: Can you hear me? with a Yes. Hence the answer here is A.


Still dont really get it. To me, the answer of "yes" or "no" doesn't make any difference because the subject does ANSWER. No matter the answer is correct or not, the fact that the subject does answer means he/she can hear. If would make more sense if the subject remains silence... which truly prove that he/she is deaf!


Hello MulanQ

I understand the question's logic is quite hard to digest. The key point is that the deaf part is dissociated from the replies part. It means that no matter one can/can't hear anything, he/she always replies in a predetermined way. In this question, the deaf part means one is hypnotized to become "deaf", he/she is not a deaf person. (I think you misunderstood this point). In order to prove that the two parts is dissociated, we have to prove TWO cases, NOT only one used by the author.

If the deaf part is dissociated from the replies part, so:

Case #1: Although one can actually hear, he/she always replies "NO". --> It means the the "deaf" (or the hearing part) does not affect the reply part. (If he/she says "YES", he/she may hear something actually --> the deaf part may not dissociated from the reply part).

Case #2: Although one does NOT hear anything, he/she still replies "YES" --> It means the the "deaf" (or the hearing part) does not affect the reply part. (If he/she says "NO", he/she may not hear anything actually --> the deaf part may not dissociated from the reply part).

If the two cases above are shown properly, the argument's conclusion is correct. But if only one case is shown, case #1 in this question, we can't conclude that the deaf part is dissociated from the replies part.

A shows that the author "forgot" case #2, so the conclusion should be weaken.

Hope it helps.


Hi, can u kindly help me to understand how option A is different from option D. A asks why do the subjects dont respond 'yes'. D, on the other hand, asks why do the subjects respond in the same manner ie. they say no every time instead of yes.
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Re: When hypnotized subjects are told that they are deaf and are then aske  [#permalink]

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New post 01 Nov 2017, 12:34
Quote:
When hypnotized subjects are told that they are deaf and are then asked whether they can hear the hypnotist, they reply, "No." Some theorists try to explain this result by arguing that the selves of hypnotized subjects are dissociated into separate parts, and that the part that is deaf is dissociated from the part that replies.

Which of the following challenges indicates the most serious weakness in the attempted explanation described above?

(A) Why does the part that replies not answer, "Yes"?

(B) Why are the observed facts in need of any special explanation?

(C) Why do the subjects appear to accept the hypnotist's suggestion that they are deaf?

(D) Why do hypnotized subjects all respond the same way in the situation described?

(E) Why are the separate parts of the self the same for all subjects?

sunny91 wrote:
Hi, can u kindly help me to understand how option A is different from option D. A asks why do the subjects dont respond 'yes'. D, on the other hand, asks why do the subjects respond in the same manner ie. they say no every time instead of yes.

Choice (D) does not ask, "Why do they always say 'No' instead of 'Yes'." Rather, choice (D) asks, "Why don't the responses vary from subject to subject? Why don't some subjects say 'No' while others say 'Yes'? What explains the consistency of these results? Answering this question alone might challenge the explanation described in the passage, but (A) directly challenges the explanation given, so it is a better answer.
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Re: When hypnotized subjects are told that they are deaf and are then aske  [#permalink]

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New post 22 Jan 2018, 06:09
Indeed I got it right. However I am still not satisfied with Choice A. What guarantees that a Yes or No to this question will make theorists' argument wrong that selves of hypnotized subjects get dissociated into separate parts?

Just restarted my GMAT life. KUDOs please :-)
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Re: When hypnotized subjects are told that they are deaf and are then aske  [#permalink]

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New post 22 Jan 2018, 13:19
saski07 wrote:
Indeed I got it right. However I am still not satisfied with Choice A. What guarantees that a Yes or No to this question will make theorists' argument wrong that selves of hypnotized subjects get dissociated into separate parts?

Just restarted my GMAT life. KUDOs please :-)

We don't need a GUARANTEE that a yes/no answer to this question will make the argument invalid. We simply need the answer choice that identifies the most serious weakness in the argument. Choice (A) is the best answer, even though it does not prove that the argument is wrong.
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Re: When hypnotized subjects are told that they are deaf and are then aske &nbs [#permalink] 22 Jan 2018, 13:19

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