Punyata wrote:
While the expression “no great shakes” originally referred to gamblers who were not adept at rolling dice, they have come to connote broadly varying meanings; they could refer, for example, to individuals who perform tasks only unexceptionally or, just as easily, to unmemorable or ordinary experiences.
A] referred to gamblers who were not adept at rolling dice, they have come to connote broadly varying meanings; they
B] referred to gamblers who were not adept at rolling dice, it has come to connote a broad variety of meanings; it
C] referred to gamblers who were not adept at rolling dice, it has connoted broadly varying meanings; it
D] have referred to gamblers who were not adept at rolling dice, it has come to connote a broad variety of meanings; it
E]have referred to gamblers who were not adept at rolling dice, they have come to connote broadly varying meanings; they
krakgmat wrote:
Mike, Can you please respond to the SC question below. I really appreciate your help. Thanks
Dear krakgmat,
I got your p.m. and I'm happy to help. I added the tag "Debatable OA" to this thread, because someone, perhaps
Punyata, marked the answer as
(C), but clearly
(B) is a better answer, and other websites featuring this question also say the OA is
(B). Her'e's my analysis.
Split #1: the subject is "
the expression", which is a singular noun. This requires a singular pronoun, "
it", not "
they", so choices
(A) &
(E) are incorrect.
Split #2: similarly, because the subject is singular, we need proper SV agreement. The construction "
the expression .... referred" is perfectly correct, but the construction "
the expression .... have referred" violates SV agreement. Choices
(D) &
(E) make this mistake and cannot be correct. Incidentally, here's a blog on SV agreement:
https://magoosh.com/gmat/2013/subject-ve ... orrection/This leaves us with
(B) &
(C). The only difference between these two is the phrasing concerning the verb "
connote". Notice, the contrast here is between an earlier meaning of the expression, the meaning to which the expression "
originally referred", and what it means now, past vs. present.
This is one of these very funny idiom things. The phrase "
has connoted" sounds unutterably awkward, for reasons that are hard to explain. If we were going to us this in a contrast, we would say: "
The expression has connoted X, but now it also connotes Y." It could be idiomatically correct in a construction in which it represents a past meaning that was still continuing ---- although, I must say, even in a sentence in which it logical seems it would be the perfectly natural choice, the words "
has connoted" sounds awkward simply as a combination of words. This is the problem with
(C), which can't possibly be the answer.
Meanwhile, here we are discussing a condition which originally wasn't true but, through development over time. became more and more true, so that it is perfectly true in the present moment; the correct idiom for this is "
has come to mean X", and the construction "
[the expression] has come to connote ..." is idiomatically correct and states the exact logical sequence of events we want to convey. This is why
(B) is the best answer.
With all due respect, I believe that
argha misunderstood some of the idiomatic subtlety of this question. This is a relatively rare idiom, and I suspect that the real GMAT wouldn't use it in SC at all, but here, in
(C), it is used perfectly correct and with precision.
Does all this make sense?
Mike