Women genrally do not receive lower pay for doing precisely : GMAT Critical Reasoning (CR)
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# Women genrally do not receive lower pay for doing precisely

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Senior Manager
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20 Jul 2004, 01:54
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Women genrally do not receive lower pay for doing precisely the same work as men. Rather, regardless of their skills, women have disproportionately high representation in jobs traditionally paying lower wages. If jobs paid according to the skills and education required by them, this de facto segregation would not not exist.
Which of the following is most likely true?
A. Some jobs performed by more men than women pay higher wages than jobs requiring comparable skills, but performed by more women than men.
B. Regardless of sex or occupation, a person should be paid an amount sufficient to support his or her household
C. As men enter a field, earnings tend to rise, not only for men but also for the women in the field
D. Little percentage gain has occured in the number of women holding jobs traditionally held by men
E. Generally accepted methods are available for evaluating the level of skill required in, and hence the appropriate pay for, any job traditionally held by women
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20 Jul 2004, 02:10
(A) by POE. Under 2min.

(E) was close though
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Re: CR: woman - low paid [#permalink]

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20 Jul 2004, 02:19
bigtooth81 wrote:
A. Some jobs performed by more men than women pay higher wages than jobs requiring comparable skills, but performed by more women than men.
...
E. Generally accepted methods are available for evaluating the level of skill required in, and hence the appropriate pay for, any job traditionally held by women

Again I'm left with A and E, as above. And I select A

A is actually restating the facts mentioned in the argument, just in a different way.

E is not the answer because the the existence of accepted methods for evaluating pay should be there for all jobs, nit just those traditionally held by women.

Anyone else having a better explanation why E is incorrect?
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20 Jul 2004, 09:26
Some of the most prosperous nations in the world have experienced a pronounced drop in national savings-rates - the percentage of after-tax income an average household saves. This trend will undoubtedly continue if the average age of these nations' populations continues to rise, since older people have fewer reasons to save than do younger people.
Which one of the following indicates an error in the reasoning leading to the prediction above?

(A) It fails to specify the many reasons younger people have for saving money, and it
fails to identify which of those reasons is the strongest.
(B) It assumes that a negative savings rate - the result of the average household's
spending all of its after-tax income as well as some of its existing savings - cannot ever come about in any nation.
(C) It fails to cite statistics showing that the average age of the population of certain nations is rising.
(D) It only takes into account the comparative number of reasons older and younger people, respectively, have for saving, and not the comparative strength of those reasons.
(E) It uses after-tax income as the base for computing the national savings rate without establishing by argument that after-tax income is a more appropriate base than before-tax income.
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20 Jul 2004, 09:28
Oops....clicked the wrong button!!..Please ignore my previous message (as I cannot find the delete button!!!)
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20 Jul 2004, 09:56
A .... for it tells the fact that though women are not distinguished on the leve of work and low wages...somehow they tend to be kept aside b'cos they haVe a high presence in low - paying works... and t6his fact is rightly tsaid by the first choice...

hope that helps !

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20 Jul 2004, 09:56
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